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Testspørsmål i-Net+ Generelle spørsmål

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1. By convention as described in RFC, the standard port number for FTP would be:

1.     21
2.    25
3.    80
4.    110

answer:

A. The only choice that is correct is Port 21. Port 25 is used for outgoing mail, Port 80 is for Web access, and finally, Port 110 is used for incoming mail.

2. Given the choices below, which would best be described as a Class C address range?

1.     111-126
2.    128-191
3.    192-223
4.    224-239

answer:

C. The only option is 192-223, given the design of the IP protocol.

3. The best description of UDP would be:

1.     A connection-oriented protocol
2.    A popular Microsoft protocol for allowing NetWare to create a VPN session
3.    A stripped-down version of L2TP
4.    A connectionless protocol

answer:

D. UDP is one of the two major TCP/IP protocols used for transport. Of the choices listed, only a connectionless protocol would describe UDP.

4. What would best describe TFTP as an acronym?

1.     Top rate File Transfer Protocol
2.    Timed File Transfer Protocol
3.    Traditional File Transfer Protocol
4.    Trivial File Transfer Protocol

answer:

D. This protocol operates using UDP versus TTP. TFTP is now considered an antiquated protocol.

5. Given how ADSL operates, choose the best answer below.

1.     Hardly at all
2.    Same upload and download speeds
3.    Higher download speeds and slower upload speeds
4.    Depends on the ISP

answer:

C. ADSL operates at the same speed, so choice b is incorrect. The A in DSL stands for asynchronous. Therefore, choice c is correct. The other answers are noise words.

6. Given the choices below, what would you use to reset a modem?

1.     AT?
2.     ATDT
3.    ATZ
4.    ATH

answer:

C. This is among one of many of the command sets predetermined by the AT command set. ATDT issues the command dial with touch tone, whereas ATH issues the command to hang up the line.

7. What is the proper syntax for establishing a telnet connection?

1.     Telenet://host:port, test case, password
2.    Telnet://Testcase:password@host:port#/
3.    Telenet://password+user_name@host:port#/
4.    Telnet://test_Case @password/host:port#

answer:

B. The proper syntax for Telnet is
Telnet://servername:password@host:port#/.

8. Regardless of what the user does, he cannot find a Web site either by IP address or family name. What is the most likely source of the issue?

1.     The MAC address
2.    Misconfigured browser
3.    DNS error
4.    Firewall configuration error

answer:

D. Because of the complexity of firewalls, they are easy to misconfigure.

9. Given the choices below, what would a DHCP server perform?

1.     Locate the DNS server
2.    Lease an IP address
3.    Identify an intruder
4.    Provide an AOL account

answer:

B. DHCP has been a way to keep the limited number of IP addresses from causing an Internet meltdown. It has nothing to do with DNS servers, and cannot identify anything beyond an IP request. Furthermore, it has nothing to do with America Online. Therefore, only choice b is correct.

10. From all the choices given below, choose the correct identifier from a host file:

1.     A
2.    SOA
3.    MX
4.     #

answer:

A. According to RFC convention, the A record is the identification for a host file. An SOA is just the start of authority, the MX record is for mail, and the pound symbol is a remark.

11. Workers at your company are complaining that there is no incoming mail. You check with your coworkers, and they're able to surf the Web and send mail out. Given this, the most likely cause is:

1.     The ISP's DHCP server is not functioning.
2.    The ISP's Mac server is down.
3.    The ISP's POP3 server has failed.
4.    The ISP's SMTP server is out to lunch.

answer:

C. In larger sites, different servers frequently support mail. Keep in mind that TCP/IP mail protocols use different port numbers. Because the failure is with the incoming mail only, a reasonable conclusion would be that the service on port 110 is not functioning.

12. You find you can connect to a Web site by using the IP address; however, when using the friendly name, the machine fails to connect. This is most likely caused by which of the following?

1.     Incorrect DNS entry
2.    Defective DHCP entry
3.    Mac entry is corrupt
4.    A bad hair day for the Internet

answer:

A. DHCP leases IP addresses, therefore choice b is incorrect. MAC addresses are on a NIC. If you had a bad NIC, there would be no connectivity at all. Choice d may be a bad attempt at humor, and it is also incorrect. This leaves choice a, which resolves friendly names to IP addresses, as the correct answer.

13. From the list below, select the best definition for DHCP:

1.     A Cisco trademark
2.    Provides Microsoft clients NetBIOS names
3.    Required by federal law
4.    Manages and leases IP addresses

answer:

D. DHCP is defined in RFCs, and has replaced the BOOTP protocol. All other choices are completely bogus.

14. To confirm connectivity, you would use which of the following commands?

1.     ARP
2.    PPTP
3.    PING
4.    RAS
5.    <!-- invisible comment here -->

answer:

C. The packet Internet groper, otherwise known as PING, uses Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) to find and time a response from the target.

15. Given the following choices, choose the purpose of a firewall:

1.     Is required by the fire marshal
2.    Block adult sites at the location
3.    Close an intranet completely to the Internet
4.    Offer security against intruders

answer:

D. A firewall is designed to filter IP traffic based on a rule set created by the administrator. Choice a refers to the physical world, and is therefore incorrect. The second option would be difficult to administer, and the third option would limit productivity.

16. Given the options below, choose the subnet for class A addresses:

1.     255.0.0.0
2.    255.255.0.0
3.    255.255.255.0
4.    255.255.255.255

answer:

A. Using binary math, the 255 allows the first 8 bits to be used as the network name. This allows the last three octets to be host names.

17. Given the technologies listed below, choose which is the slowest?

1.     E1
2.     T3
3.     OC1
4.     OC3

answer:

A. Both the Tx and Ex are specifications for copper wire. OC is Optical Carrier, which uses a newer technology with higher bandwidth. This requires fiber optics.

18. Given the list below, choose the best option for converting protocol types:

1.     Switch
2.    Gateway
3.    Router
4.    NIC

answer:

B. According to the OSI model, only the gateway can perform this function. Although it is true that today's routers perform many functions beyond the classic definition, this question tests your knowledge of the OSI model. Typically, a switch operates on layer two of the OSI model. And a NIC operates on layer one of the OSI model.

19. Given the choices below, choose the one that is not bandwidth-adaptive:

1.     PPP
2.    PPTP
3.    L2TP
4.    SLIP

answer:

D. SLIP is the oldest of the dial-up transport protocols for TCP/IP. All the other choices are updates to the SLIP protocol.

20. When you want to know what MAC address is tied to a particular IP address, you would use the ____ command.

1.     TRACERT
2.    NETSTAT
3.    NBTSTAT
4.    ARP

answer:

D. Of the choices given, only the ARP command, otherwise known as Address Resolution Protocol, is the answer. It is one of the over 100 TCP/IP definitions for resolving the unique Network Interface Card (NIC) hexadecimal names assigned to an NIC that in turn has a unique IP number assigned.

21. Currently, your company is using an X.25 connection. You have been asked to look into upgrading to Frame Relay. In both cases, this would be considered what type of technology?

1.     LAN
2.    MAN
3.    WAN
4.    TWAIN

answer:

C. Frame Relay is the digital version of an upgrade to X.25. Frame Relay has a faster top end than the analog technology it replaced. TWAIN is an acronym for technology without an important name. Because both X.25 and Frame Relay are used for transfers over long distances, choice c, Wide Area Network, is correct.

22. Given the choices below, select the best choice for determining how data packets are traveling across the Internet.

1.     WINIPCFG
2.    IPCONFIG
3.    CGI
4.    TRACERT

answer:

D. IPCONFIG and WINIPCFG are used to inform you of the state of your TCP/IP configuration. CGI is an acronym for Common Gateway Interface. Only the TRACERT command will display the path that a packet of data is taking.

23. The proper way to create a VPN is to use

1.     NetBIOS
2.    WINS
3.    DNS
4.    PPTP

answer:

D. Among the selected choices, only PPTP, Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol, is a secure transport protocol. NetBIOS is for naming machines, WINS is a Microsoft offering for resolving domain names, and Domain Name Service (DNS) is for resolving IP addresses to friendly names.

24. The correct class B subnet mask below is?

1.     255.0.0.0
2.    255.255.0.0
3.    255.255.255.0
4.    255.255.255.255

answer:

B. Using binary math, the number 255 creates a type of a pipe that allows the network 'name' to flow through, while the zeroes act like sponges, blocking the rest of the binary address to allow this to be
used for host 'names'.

25. The best choice in the list below for a connection-oriented protocol would be:

1.     CGI
2.    ARP
3.    UDP
4.    TCP

answer:

D. Of the choices listed, only TCP and UDP are transport protocols. TCP uses a connection-oriented three-way handshake and creates a virtual circuit. This ensures that packets arrive in order. This comes at the price of higher overhead than a UDP connection. ARP is used to for IP-address-to-MAC resolution and is therefore incorrect. CGI is an acronym for Common Gateway Interface, and therefore incorrect.

26. Which HTML tag uses the METHOD attribute?

1.     <FRAME>
2.    <TABLE>
3.    <FORM>
4.    <META>

answer:

C. The METHOD attribute of the <FORM>tag describes how the form contents are to be handled.

27. What is the difference between a <P> tag and a <BR> tag? [Choose the two best answers]

1.     The <P> tag starts a new line and adds a new line of white space.
2.    The <BR> tag starts a new line and does not add a line of white space.
3.    The <P> tag starts a new line and does not add a new line of white space.
4.    The <BR> tag starts a new line and adds a line of white space.

answer:

A + B. The main difference between a <BR> tag and a <P> tag is that the <P> tag adds a line of white space.

28. Which of these HTML elements is formatted incorrectly?

1.     <P> </p>
2.    <!></!><DIV> </div>
3.    <Frameset> </FRAMESET>
4.    <DIV> </div>

answer:

B. Because HTML is case-insensitive, answers a, d, and c are okay. However, the proper format for comment tags is <!-- comments go here -->.

29. On a Web site, a host header is used for?

1.     Determining which client is using a single machine when there are multiple users
2.    Permits multiple virtual servers using a single IP address
3.    Used when a SLIP connection is made
4.    All of the above

answer:

B. Host headers are a new feature found in HTTP 1.1, and HTTP 1.1 is required along with a browser that can support this feature. Because choice a is client-side based, choice a is bogus. Choice c is incorrect because this has to do with a dialup connection; this clearly invalidates choice d.

30. Typically, you would set up a certificate server to?

1.     Control proxy clients
2.    Eliminate the need for WINS servers
3.    Eliminate the need for DHCP servers
4.    Verify user credentials

answer:

D. Certificate servers are based on the X.509 standards. They are used to verify user credentials. Certificate servers have nothing to do with proxy, WINS, or DHCP servers. Therefore, choices a, b, and c are incorrect.

31. When creating server permissions for a SQL database, typically which permissions would you use from the following list?

1.     Read
2.    Read/Write
3.    Read/Write/Execute
4.    Full control

answer:

C. Relational databases run on application servers, and need permission to be able to write as well as run the application Structured Query Language. Therefore, choices a and b are incorrect. Choice d is overly broad, resulting in a security risk.

32. Choose from the following list the most popular use of SSI.

1.     A diagnostic tool for ISPs
2.    A method of encrypting data
3.    A method of excluding a program on the client side
4.    A method of executing a program on the server side

answer:

D. The acronym for SSI is Server Side Includes. SSI is used to execute programs or for running scripts on the server. Choices a and b are bogus; choice c might have been correct if a different acronym list was used and the word executing was used instead of excluding.

33. Using the list provided below, select the best choice for integrating a Web site to a database.

1.     CSS
2.    RealVideo
3.    JDBC
4.    C++

answer:

C. JDBC was created after Microsoft released ODBC. This solution interoperates ODBC; however, it is platform-neutral. RealVideo does not connect to databases, whereas C++ requires an extensive programming background.

34. The i-Net+ test is heavy on acronyms. Given that, what is the correct meaning for CSS?

1.     Cascading Static Sheets
2.    Cascading Style Sheet
3.    Complex Static Sheet
4.    Complex Style Sheet

answer:

B. This acronym is short for cascading style sheets. Although CSS may be complex, this is not what the acronym stands for.

35. The best way to create a static file for ordering products is?

1.     SQL
2.    In a flat-file database
3.    A PNG entry
4.    A TCL script

answer:

B. SQL is the way to go for complex data and dynamic data. Static data that is only a couple of MB in size is less resource-intensive in a flat file. PNG is a graphic format, and TCL is a scripting language.

36. Another way of saying you are preparing a uniform resource locator would be to say?

1.     You are creating a URL.
2.    You are creating a WINS scope.
3.    You are modifying Uuencode.
4.    You are making a DNS entry.

answer:

A. The Uniform Resource Locator converts IP address to the friendlier name dot com usage. WINS servers are for NT domains, whereas Uuencode is for converting an 8-bit file to a 7-bit file. DNS servers hold the friendly-name-to-IP conversion information.

37. Which language needs to be compiled before being run on a server?

1.     ASP
2.    Java
3.    VBScript
4.    JavaScript

answer:

B. The only language listed that requires compiling is Java. Active Server Pages are parsed by the server, whereas JavaScript and VBScript are parsed on the client.

38. Which of the following is a server-side script?

1.     Shockwave
2.    C++
3.    JavaScript
4.    Python

answer:

B. Of the choices listed, all the others are client-side based. C++ is server-side based.

39. All users of your Web site report that the logo for your company, a GIF file, is not displaying. What could be the problem?

1.     The GIF file is too big.
2.    GIFs are not supported on the WWW.
3.    The users need the proper plugin.
4.    The path in the <IMG> tag is incorrect.

answer:

D. If the problem occurs in all browsers, it is probably a syntax error in the HTML code. GIFs require no plug-ins and are widely used on the WWW.

40. You want to provide an overview of your Web site to new visitors. What is the best way to do that?

1.     Site map
2.    Image map
3.    Search engine
4.    JavaScript

answer:

A. A site map is the best choice. Image maps have compatibility issues with some browsers. A site map can be created with JavaScript, but JavaScript is not a solution in and of itself.

41. Which of the following technologies allows you to create a 3D environment on your Web site?

1.     QuickTime
2.    VRML
3.    Shockwave
4.    Flash

answer:

B. The Virtual Reality Markup Language creates 3D environments.

42. Why should you name your frames when creating a frameset document?

1.     To keep from losing track of them
2.    To allow for cross-browser compatibility
3.    To create targets for any hyperlinks
4.    To improve the URL update

answer:

C. It makes it simpler to target windows when linking

43. You want to start your own ISP. You will be hosting 10 Web sites on one server with one IP address. What Internet technology will you need?

1.     HTTP Keep-Alives
2.    HTTP V.1.0
3.    Virtual IP Addresses
4.    HTTP V.1.1

answer:

D. HTTP v1.1 allows for host headers, which enable multiple Web sites to be associated with one IP address.

44. In the following list of regional country codes, which is not valid?

1.     GR
2.    ZB
3.    US
4.    NU

answer:

B. The only code that is not valid is choice b.

45. You are launching a new Web site that will require the users to log in with a password. What is the best way to store the passwords?

1.     Cookies
2.    SQL database
3.    Relational database
4.    MS SAM

answer:

A. To avoid a single point of failure, cookies are the best option.

46. You would like to index all of your documents on your company's intranet. What is the best way to do this?

1.     Plain text index
2.    Boolean index
3.    Full text index
4.    Keyword index

answer:

C. A full text index is the best option here. There is no such thing as a Boolean index.

47. Of the following choices, what is the best way to advertise a Web site?

1.     Postcards
2.    Word of mouth
3.    Spam
4.    Banner ads at a search engine site

answer:

D. Given these choices, banner ads on a search engine site would drive the most traffic to your site.

48. To place a ©symbol on a Web page, you would use the following syntax:

1.     *copy
2.    (copy)
3.    &copy;
4.    <copy>

answer:

C. The &copy; is the proper HTML syntax. The other answers are not valid.

49. To place a copyright in the head of a Web page, what would you write?

1.     <head>This document is protected by copyright 2000<head>
2.    <!-- This document is copyrighted 2000 Coriolis-->
3.    <p>Copyright 2000 Certification Insider<p>
4.    &#copy

answer:

B. This is a trick question. The question never stated that you wanted to display the copyright information, which would be answer d. If you just want to place copyright info in the source code, use answer b.

50. You find the perfect image for your Web site on another site. What should you do to use the image?

1.     Go ahead and use it.
2.    Check the file for a watermark.
3.    Change the resolution.
4.    Ask the site owner's permission to use the file.

answer:

D. Although the existence of a watermark indicates the copyright status of the image, it is bad form to use any content from a site without permission.

51. The maximum size of a cookie directory is:

1.     2.1MB
2.    1.2MB
3.    1.2GB
4.    2.1GB

answer:

B. The maximum size of a cookie directory is 1.2MB. If this limit is exceeded, the oldest cookie is deleted.

52. What is the maximum number of cookies per domain?

1.     100
2.    15
3.    650
4.     20

answer:

D. A domain may place only 20 cookies on a client machine.

53. To create a search for electric automobiles, you would enter: [Choose the two best answers]

1.     Electric Automobile
2.    Electric + Automobile
3.    Electric OR Automobile
4.    Electric AND Automobile

answer:

B + D. The type of search being performed is a Boolean search. If you entered choice a or c, the results returned would include all listings that contained electric or automobile.

54. In what situation would you want to turn off your antivirus software?

1.     Downloading a file from the Internet
2.    Installing new software
3.    Checking your email
4.    Never

answer:

B. When you install new software, your virus software may inform you that an .exe file is attempting to write to the hard drive or change registry settings. In all other situations, virus software should be
running.

55. Which of the following technologies is not parsed on the server?

1.     CGI
2.    ASP
3.    ISAPI
4.    HTML

answer:

D. HTML is the file format for Web pages that are parsed by the client's browser.

56. Which of the following would have the most impact on a browser's performance?

1.     Client's RAM
2.    Server's RAM
3.    Client's processor
4.    Server's Internet connection

answer:

A. Client-side RAM would have the greatest impact on browser performance. Answer s c and d would also impact, but the question asked for the greatest impact.

57. Given the following list, choose the technologies commonly found in an extranet. [Choose all that apply]

1.     EDI
2.     SSL
3.    HTML
4.    VPN
5.    XML

answer:

All of the above. Many different technologies can be used in an extranet. Think of this question as an acronym check.

58. Which of the following technologies can a virus infect? [Choose the three best answers]

1.     MPEG file
2.    Data stored on a hard drive
3.    BIOS
4.    Plain text email

answer:

A + B + C. Viruses can infect nearly anything. Of the items listed, the only one that is currently immune is the plain text email.

59. An attack that pretends to be the intended information recipient is what type of attack?

1.     Out-of-bounds attack
2.    Ping-of-death attack
3.    Syn flood attack
4.    Spoof attack

answer:

D. A spoof attack intercepts information by pretending to be the real information recipient.

60. An attack to a server that establishes a connection and partly opens TCP ports is what type of attack?

1.     Syn attack
2.    Ping-of-death attack
3.    Spoof attack
4.    Out-of-bounds attack

answer:

A. This type of attack blocks access to the server.

61. A digital certificate would not include which feature listed below?

1.     Encryption
2.    Handwritten signature
3.    A method for authentication
4.    Ensures that it is not possible to refute the sending

answer:

B. The "signature" is a long unique key.

62. Constantly pinging a server, making it busy, is known as what type of attack?

1.     Out-of-bounds attack
2.    Man-in-the-middle attack
3.    A brute force attack
4.    A denial-of-service attack

answer:

D. The idea is to create so many requests to the server that all its resources are consumed, leaving none for its intended purposes.

63. An unauthorized user is between two Web sites reading clear text passwords. This is known as what type of attack?

1.     Out-of-bounds attack
2.    Man-in-the-middle attack
3.    A flood attack
4.    A Ping-of-Death attack

answer:

B. A man-in-the-middle attack does not present itself as a
clear threat, unlike the other three mentioned.

64. 128-bit encryption is available in what countries?

1.     Mexico, Canada, and the United States
2.    Every country not on a restricted list
3.    United States and Canada
4.    All countries worldwide

answer:

C. Actually, after the i-Net+ test was written, the U.S. government changed the rules. For the test, only the United States and Canada are correct. This was accurate at the time. Welcome to the fast-paced
world.

65. An employee needs to log in to a secure Web site with a username and password in the URL line. Which is the correct URL below?

1.     HTTP:username@password//secure.mycorp.com
2.    HTTPS:username@password/secure.mycorp.com
3.    HTTPS:secure.mycorp.com/username@password
4.    HTTP://secure.bfq.com/username@password

answer:

D. The RFC conventions require this format for functionality.

66. You are preparing to send an employee's computer from the United States to your offices overseas. What do you need to do to make it compatible with international encryption standards?

1.     Download a patch for the browser
2.    Update the browser to international standards
3.    Format the hard drive and reinstall
4.    Apply for an export permit from the United States government

answer:

B. If you are up to date, you know that the U.S. government changed this in the last few days of 1999. The test was written before then. So, for the test, remember the not-so-distant history.

67. EDI is used for which of the following?

1.     Personal Web pages
2.    Business-to-business data exchange over the Internet
3.    Encryption of email
4.    Credit card acceptance

answer:

B. One of many acronyms in the i-Net+ test; short for Electronic Data Interchange.

68. To connect a browser to a database, you need which of the following?

1.     DSN
2.    IPX
3.    DNS
4.    TCP

answer:

A. A DSN (Data Source Name) is used to uniquely identify the database by name.

69. A satisfactory method for viewing IP information is to type the following command:

1.     DIR IP
2.    WIN.INI
3.    NETSTAT
4.    TRACERT

answer:

C. DIR IP lists files, WIN.INI is a Windows 3.1 inilization file, and TRACERT shows the path the packet is taking.

70. Given the options below, what can a proxy server do? [Choose the three best answers]

1.     Consolidate one Internet connection for multiple users
2.    Conceal the IP address of multiple users
3.    Requires a network operating system
4.    Requires an Internet connection

answer:

A + B + D. The only incorrect option is requiring a network operating system. A case in point is Wingate, which may operate on a client operating system.

71. The best description listed below for a network hub is?

1.     A converging point for an airline
2.    A slang term for a DNS server
3.    A server that contains user names and their passwords
4.    A method to connect unshielded twisted-pair cabling to a central point

answer:

D. A hub is used to connect unshielded twisted-pair cabling on the Physical layer of the OSI model.

72. The well-known port number for the World Wide Web is

1.     21
2.    25
3.    80
4.    110

answer:

C. There is no rule that requires you to use that port. However, Port 80 is only useful for creating a less than public Web site. Port 21 is used for FTP, well-known Port 25 is used for SMTP, and Port 110
is used for POP3.

Testspørsmål i-Net+ emnesortert

Business Concepts

73. Using a Web browser to request a document from a Web server and then displaying the document is an example of ______ technology.

1.     Push technology
2.    Put technology
3.    Pull technology
4.    Piece technology

answer:

C. When using pull technology, the transfer of information is initiated by the client. When using push technology, the transfer of information is initiated by the server.

74. When using "pull" technology, transfers of information are initiated by the __________________:

1.     Server
2.    Client
3.    Client's DNS server
4.    Server's gateway
   

answer:

B. When using pull technology, the transfer of information is initiated by the client.

75. When using "push" technology, transfers of information are initiated by the _______________.

1.     Server
2.    Client
3.    Client's DNS server
4.    Server's gateway

answer:

A. When using push technology, the transfer of information is initiated by the server.

76. A private network that limits access to authorized individuals within an organization is called a(n) _____________.

1.    WAN
2.    LAN
3.    Extranet
4.    Intranet

answer:

D. An intranet is a network controlled by a single organization that restricts access to authorized individuals within that organization. An intranet may or may not have connections to the public Internet, but if so those connections should be filtered by firewalls or proxy servers to safeguard resources on the intranet.

77. A portion of a private network to which specific outside organizations and individuals have been granted access is called a(n) __________.

1.     WAN
2.    LAN
3.    Extranet
4.    Intranet

answer:

C. An extranet is a subset of an organizations intranet to which specific outside organizations or individuals have been granted access.

78. EDI refers to:

1.     Electromagnetic Data Interference
2.    Electronic Data Interchange
3.    Encapsulated Data Interface
4.    E-commerce Dynamic Interface

answer:

B. EDI (Electronic Data Interchange) refers to the electronic exchange of data between organizations via and extranet or the Internet. The data being exchanged can be anything from purchase orders and payment information to product specifications and price lists.

79. Which of the following can be copyrighted? (Choose all that apply.)

1.    Literary works.
2.    Sounds
3.    Animation
4.    Graphics

answer:

A, B, C, and D. All of these items can be copyrighted. Virtually anything you might refer to as "content" can be copyrighted, and you should be careful to use only content in your Web sites to which you or your organization has rights.

80. In order to obtain a copyright for new content that you create, you must:

1.     Register it with the U.S. Copyright Office within 120 days.
2.    Send a notarized copy to the U.S. Patent office within 90 days.
3.    Do nothing amd you automatically have a copyright on any original work that your create.
4.    Register it with the U.N. Commision on International Copyrights within 1 year.

answer:

C. As soon as you create your content in some tangible format, you automatically have a copyright to that content without taking any further action.

81. A name designated with the @tm symbol is protected by a:

1.     Patent
2.    Copyright
3.    Writ of Habeus Corpus
4.    Trademark

answer:

D. Names designated with either the @tm or the ( symbols are protected by a trademark. Trademarks can be established simply by using a particular name, but to properly protect your trademarks you should register them with the national trademark authority in the countries in which you do business.

82. In order to legally use someone else's intellectual property, you must purchase their rights to the property or a _____________ to use it.

1.     License
2.    Trademark
3.    Pass
4.    Permit

answer:

A. Licensing a piece of intellectual property allows you to use the property in the manner specified by the license. Purchasing a license does not mean that you own the intellectual property @md it merely gives you the right to use it in the prescribed manner.

83. A _______ file contains a list of questions that you anticipate visitors to your site will have and provides answers to those questions.

1.     UDF
2.    HCL
3.    FAQ
4.    RTF

answer:

C. A Frequently Asked Question (FAQ) file is often included when building a Web site. New users to a site will often have the same questions about how to use the information, programs, and services offered on the site, and a FAQ file provides a clear, concise means of answering those questions. When maintaining a Web site, monitor the questions your users ask and consider adding them to a FAQ file.

84. Which of the following technologies can be used to enable secure e-commerce financial transactions via the Web? (Choose all that apply.)

1.    SET
2.    SSL
3.    RSA
4.    eGold

answer:

A, B, and C. SET (Secure Electronic Transaction), SSL (Secure Socket Layer), and RSA (the Rivest, Shamir, and Adlemen encryption protocol) can all be used to encrypt secure e-commerce transactions.

85. In order to process credit card transactions over the Internet, you must have:

1.     An FTP site.
2.     A merchant account
3.     Java
4.     An intranet.

answer:

B. A merchant account is a special type of account that can accept credit card transactions. In order to accept credit cards over the Internet (or over the phone for that matter), you must have a merchant account.

86. Small ads, usually about 50 pixels by 500 pixels, that link to another Web site are called:

1.     Pop-ups
2.    Banners
3.    Spam
4.    Cookies

answer:

B. Banners are small ads that link to a site related to whatever is being advertised. Banner ads are a popular way to drive traffic to a Web site. Web sites that offer related (but usually not competing) products will exchange banners with each other for free, while other sites charge fees for placing banner ads on their sites.

87. PointCast, a service that sends news headlines to client computers on a schedule without user intervention so that they can be displayed as part of a screen saver, is an example of _________ technology.

1.    VPN
2.    Intranet
3.    Push
4.    E-mail

answer:

C. Any technology where the exchange of data between a client and a server is initiated by the server is an example of push technology.

88. In order for a U.S. company to accept orders from international customers without worrying about keeping track of exchange rates and maintaining a price list for each of the world's major currencies, the best solution is to:

1.    Accept credit cards.
2.    Require all international payments to be made by cashier's check in U.S. currency.
3.    Require all international payments to be paid with checks drawn on U.S. banks.
4.    Require all international payments to be paid in cash.

answer:

A. Credit card companies will automatically calculate the correct exchange rate and charge the customer the correct amount in their local currency while depositing the correct amount (minus their fee) in the seller's merchant account. This works both ways -- accepting credit cards also allows non-U.S. companies to sell to customers in the U.S. without worrying about the details of currency exchange.

89. An EULA is:

1.     A license agreement that allows a person or corporation to use a piece of software but does not typically give that person or corporation any ownership of the software.
2.     A lossy graphics format.
3.     A standard for secure electronic commerce.
4.     An alternative to DNS that provides for dynamic updates via DHCP.

answer:

A. An EULA (End-User License Agreement) is the license that accompanies most pieces of commercial software and defines whatever rights a licensed user of the software possesses. EULAs do not typically convey any ownership of the software to the user.

90. ______________ provides a much wider range of characters than ASCII code, making it a useful tool for encoding foreign language text in binary format.

1.     ASCII
2.    VRML
3.    Unicode
4.    PGP

answer:

C. Unicode stores each character of text as a 16-bit value, allowing for more than 65,000 characters.

Development

91. A PDF is a(n):

1.    Protocol Dependency File.
2.    Adobe Acrobat Portable Document Format file.
3.    Protocol Descriptor File.
4.    Alternative protocol for transferring files.

answer:

B. Adobe Acrobat Portable Document Format files (PDFs), are an excellent way of sharing information across the Internet because the file format is platform independent @md the document will look the same without regard to the type of computer or operating system used to open the file.

92. Bob realizes that he has a typo in his default Web page, index.html. Which of the following can he use to correct the typo? (Choose all that apply.)

1.     A text editor such as Notepad.
2.    A Web browser such as Internet Explorer.
3.    A WYSIWYG editor.
4.    An FTP client.

answer:

A and C. HTML (HyperText Markup Language) documents are text files like any other, and can be edited with a wide variety of text editors such as Notepad (provided with Windows) or Vi (provided with most versions of Linux). Editing HTML with text editors offers the advantage of seeing the exact code used to generate the Web page seen by the end user, but can be confusing when viewing complex Web pages. WYSIWYG (What You See Is What You Get) editors such as Microsoft's FrontPage allow you to edit the page as it will appear to the end user, making it easier to see the end result. Web browsers, such as Internet Explorer or Netscape Navigator, display HTML documents, but cannot edit them. FTP clients are often used to upload Web pages, but cannot be used to edit the files themselves.

93. Which of the following symbols are used to enclose tags in an HTML document?

1.    <tag=value>
2.    #tag=value#
3.    "tag=value"
4.    [tag=value]

answer:

A. Tags in HTML are designated beginning with the "<" symbol and ending with the ">" symbol.

94. If you want your Web site to be found and indexed by search engines and Web bots, which of the following should you include in your HTML documents?

1.     Search Tags
2.    Bot Tags
3.    Meta Tags
4.    Index Tags

answer:

C. Meta tags are used to identify key topics, works, and phrases that appear in or are relevant to a particular Web site.

95. When rendering a large block of text, a Web browser will, by default, ______

1.     Insert a carriage return every 80 characters.
2.    Insert a carriage return every 40 characters.
3.    Word wrap.
4.    Truncate the text after the first 80 characters.

answer:

C. Unless instructed otherwise, a Web browser will automatically word wrap text. To instruct the browser to honor your original line breaks, you must insert tags defining where the line breaks should be. For example, the <BR> tag creates a break to the next line without starting a new paragraph.

96. How will the following line of HTML code be displayed by a browser? <a href="cartoon.gif">Joke</a>

1.     The browser will display the image cartoon.gif inline.
2.    The browser will display the image cartoon.gif as the background for the page.
3.    The browser will display a thumbnail image of the image cartoon.gif.
4.    The browser will display a text link "Joke" that links to the image cartoon.gif.

answer:

D. The example tag instructs the browser to display the word "Joke" as a hyperlink to the file cartoon.gif. The <a href=> tag creates a link.

97. Bob needs to create a link on his site to the www.dummies.com Web site. Which of the following should he add to his HTML document?

1.    <a href="http://www.dummies.com">Dummies</a>
2.    <link=""http://www.dummies.com">Dummies</a>
3.    <goto="http://www.dummies.com">Dummies</a>
4.    <"http://www.dummies.com">Dummies</a>

answer:

A. To link to another document, use the <a href=> tag (Hypertext Reference).

98. Fred wants his Web page to include a bulleted list of the basic ingredients for bread. Which of the following should he include in his HTML document?

1.    <begin list><type = bulleted> <item> water <item> flour <item> yeast <item> salt <item> sugar </end list>
2.     <ol><OL Type="1"> <li> water <li> flour <li> yeast <li> salt <li> sugar </ol>
3.    <ul> <li> water <li> flour <li> yeast <li> salt <li> sugar </ul>
4.    <ol><UL type = bulleted> <li> water <li> flour <li> yeast <li> salt <li> sugar </ol>

answer:

C. Answer C will create a bulleted list because it uses the proper <ul> and </ul> tags. Answer s B and D would create numbered lists, while answer A would not work because the tags are not valid and would be ignored, although the text would still display.

99. The pound symbol, "#", when used in an HREF target reference, indicates that:

1.     The HREF should be treated as a comment and ignored.
2.    The target is located on another server.
3.    The target is located within the same document.
4.    The target is located on the same server but in a different document.

answer:

C. The pound symbol in an HREF target reference indicates that the target lies within the same document.

100. The default file extension for Apple QuickTime movie files is:

1.     *.qt
2.    *.mpg
3.    *.tar
4.    *.zip

answer:

A. QuickTime files are usually saved with the extension *.qt. Files with the extension *.mpg are MPEG audio/video files. Files ending in the *.tar extension are archive files typically used in Linux or Unix (The "tar" derives from "tape archive"). Files ending in *.zip are compressed, or "zipped", files.

101. The RealPlayer plug-in provides what added functionality to the Web browser?

1.     On-the-fly conversion between graphics formats
2.    Interactive gaming
3.    Streaming audio and video
4.    On the fly conversion of RTF files to HTML

answer:

C. RealPlayer provides streaming audio and video. RealPlayer actually supports two formats: RealAudio for sound and RealVideo for video. The source for the audio or video can be either a live feed or a stored recording.

102. CGI programs can be written in which of the following languages? (Choose all that apply.)

1.     C
2.    Perl
3.    Java
4.    Visual Basic

answer:

A, B, C, and D. CGI (Common Gateway Interface) programs can be written in a wide variety of languages, including but not limited to C, Perl, Java, and Visual Basic. CGI is a standard to which programs conform, not a programming language in and of itself.

103. Programs use which of the following to send e-mail messages?

1.    TAPI
2.    MAPI
3.    ISAPI
4.    ATAPI

answer:

B. MAPI (Messaging Application Protocol Interface) allows programs to open a mail client to send e-mail. TAPI (Telephony API) allows an application to send voice or video via the Internet. ISAPI (Internet Server API) provides an interface for high performance Web server applications. ATAPI is an API used to connect IDE devices such as CD-ROM and ZIP drives to a PC, and is not directly related to Web functions.

104. _________ is a standard for standardizing the structure of data to make it easier to share and compare data stored in Web documents.

1.    VRML
2.    XML
3.    DHCP
4.    PDF

answer:

B. XML (eXtensible Markup Language) is a standard for defining descriptive markup tags with the intention of making it easier to compare and share data stored in Web documents.

105. _________ is an instruction language used to request specific data from a database.

A. VRML
B. SQL
C. OBDC
D. ASP

answer:

B. SQL (Structured Query Language) provides a standardized language for extracting data from a database. One of the big advantages of SQL is that it was not designed for any one specific database platform, making it relatively portable between database applications.

106. To display the current time in a Web page with a minimum of programming, a Web designer can use _______.

1.     Perl
2.    Java
3.    SSI
4.    DNS

answer:

C. The simplest way to include the time on a page is to use a Server Side Include (SSI), which uses environment variables on the server. While it might be possible to generate a time stamp with Perl or Java, those techniques would involve more programming.

107. Which of the following types of applications can run in a virtual machine on the client side?

1.    Perl
2.    ASP
3.    Java
4.    Visual Basic

answer:

C. Java applications can run in a virtual machine on the client side. In theory, Java applications are "Write Once, Run Anywhere," meaning that they should not require recompilation to run on different platforms. ASP, Perl, and Visual Basic typically execute on the server side, with the results passed back to the client.However, Java applications can also be compiled into server-side distribution modules like other programming languages.

108. Which of the following graphics formats is lossy?

1.     TIFF
2.    GIF
3.    PNG
4.    JPEG

answer:

D. JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group) images, sometimes referred to as JPG files, are lossy, meaning that the format discards some pieces of the original image for the sake of reducing the size of the file. GIF, PNG, and TIFF files are all lossless @md they retain all the original images data.

109. Which of the following file formats can be used for sound files? (Choose all that apply.)

1.    WAV
2.    AIFF
3.    JPEG
4.    AU

answer:

A, B, and D. WAV (Windows Audio/Visual) files are commonly used for sound on Microsoft Windows systems, AIFF (Audio Interchange File Format) is commonly used for sound on Macintosh computers, and AU (AUdio) files are commonly used for sound on UNIX and Linux based systems.

110. AVI is a file format for _____________.

1.     Sound
2.    Video
3.    Server Log Files
4.    Photographs

answer:

B. AVI (Audio Video Interleave) is a common file format for video.

111. A browser determines which type of viewer to load for a particular file according to the ______.

1.     File extension
2.    MIME header information
3.    <viewer> html tag
4.    <launch> html tag

answer:

B. Most Internet aware applications rely on MIME (Multi-purpose Internet Mail Extensions) headers to determine the appropriate viewer to use for a particular file.

112. Sound and video formats that can be played in real time as they are download are referred to as ______________ media.

1.     Streaming
2.    Continuous
3.    Live
4.    Active

answer:

A. Streaming file formats such as RealAudio and RealVideo can be played while the file is downloading, unlike traditional formats which require that the file be downloaded in its entirety before it can be viewed.

113. Sam complains to his network administrator Sara that he cannot open a file downloaded off the Internet using his Web browser. The file's name is news.ram. Which of the following steps should Sara suggest to Sam that may allow him to open the file?

1.     Download the file via Telnet instead of HTTP.
2.    Download and install the RealPlayer browser plug-in.
3.    Download and install the Adobe Acrobat browser plug-in.
4.    Download the file via HTTPS instead of HTTP.

answer:

B. Files with a *.ram extension are usually audio and video files in the RealMedia format, which can be viewed with a browser plug-in such as the RealPlayer plug-in.

114. In order to reduce to size of the graphics files used in a Web site, use a _________________ file format, such as JPEG.

1.     Striped
2.    Lossy
3.    Lossless
4.    Color

answer:

B. Lossy file formats compress image data on the assumption that most people won't notice the sacrificed detail. A lossless file format such as GIF preserves all of the original image data, but does not compress as well as a lossy format.

115. Bill wants to preserve the image quality of the graphics files on his Web site. He should use a lossless file format, such as

A. JPEG
B. PICT
C. GIF
D. PCX

answer:

A. lossless file format such as GIF preserves all of the original image data, but does not compress as well as a lossy format. A lossy file format such as JPG compresses image data on the assumption that most people won't notice the sacrificed detail.

116. A CGI script must be able to read from _____________ and write to _____________.

1.     RAM, hard disk
2.    A database, a form
3.     A form, a database
4.     STDIN, STDOUT

answer:

D. Following UNIX and Linux conventions, CGI scripts must be able to read from the "standard input", known as STDIN, and write to the "standard output," known as STDOUT. STDOUT and STDIN can then be redirected to an appropriate destination, perhaps a database or an HTML document.

117. VRML is a standard for:

1.     Allowing roaming users to access a VLAN securely.
2.    Virtual money used in e-commerce transactions.
3.    Using cookies in a secure environment.
4.    Creating 3-D worlds that can be viewed in a Web browser.

answer:

D. Virtual Reality Modeling Language (VRML) is a standard for creating virtual 3-D worlds that can be viewed through a Web browser. VRML is useful for both modeling real environments such as buildings and for studying 3-D representations of data.

118. Paul wants to provide a printable version of a government form on his Web site. In order to ensure that the form prints out the same without regard to the operating system used by Paul's clients, which file format should he use?

1.     PDF
2.    MS Word 2.0
3.    RTF
4.    HTML

answer:

A. Adobe's Portable Document Format (PDF) is a standard for distributing documents in electronic format so that they can be printed on a wide variety of platforms with consistent results. Other formats such as Microsoft Word, Rich Text Format (RTF), and HTML can produce widely varying results when viewed or printed on different operating systems.

119. To convert Macintosh files into portable files that can be decoded by the client after downloading, use the _______________ utility.

1.    BinHex
2.    Adobe Acrobat
3.    Microsoft FrontPage
4.    PKZIP

answer:

A. BinHex is a utility used to convert Macintosh files into a portable format that can be sent through intermediary systems and then decoded on the receiving system.

120. .zip files are:

1.     Compressed files
2.    Zenith IP configuration files
3.    Macintosh executable files
4.    UNIX executables

answer:

A. PKZIP and related programs create compressed files with the .zip file extension by default. Files are often compressed into zip files, which can contain a single file or many files, to conserve bandwidth when they are transmitted over the Internet.

121. RTF files are:

1.     Highly compressed graphics files.
2.    Raw text files that lack formatting options such as bold, italics, etc. but can be opened by most text editors.
3.    Text files that support basic formatting options such as bold, italics, etc. but can be opened by most text editors.
4.    Special Microsoft word processing format that can only be read by Microsoft applications.

answer:

C. Rich Text Format provides a file format that contains basic formatting options but that can be opened by almost any word processor, making it a good choice for posting documents on the Internet so that they can be read by most Internet users. Proprietary formats such as Microsoft Word cannot always be read "cleanly" by other word processors.

122. ______________ is a common lossless format for graphics that was developed to replace the GIF format.

1.     PICT
2.    PDF
3.    PNG
4.    JPEG

answer:

C. The Portable Network Graphics (PNG) format was developed to replace Compuserve's proprietary GIF format. PNG supports most of the same features, including transparency, with some enhancements, but its key attraction is that, unlike the GIF format, there are no potential patent issues involved in using it.

123. Which of the following programming languages can execute code on the Web client?

1.    VRML
2.    C
3.    XML
4.    Java

answer:

D. Java programs, which can also be compiled into server- or client-side objects, can be executed either on the server or the client.

124. Which two HTTP methods can a CGI program use to get a data string from a Web client? (Choose all that apply.)

1.     POST
2.    RETRIEVE
3.    ATTACH
4.    GET

answer:

A and D. CGI programs can use either the POST or GET method to get a data string from a Web client. The POST method sends the data string to STDIN (standard input). The GET method sends the data string into the environment variable "QUERY_STRING".

125. The hexadecimal code FFFFFF refers to which color:

1.     Red
2.    Black
3.    White
4.    Orange

answer:

C. HTML uses hexadecimal codes to define 24-bit colors. Each hexadecimal character represents 4 bits.

126. A database in which every record is related to other records in a parent-to-child fashion is called a _____________ database.

1.     Relational
2.    Relative
3.    Hierarchical
4.    Parental

answer:

C. Hierarchical databases are organized so that its records are related in a parent-child manner. Child records are grouped beneath parents, much like what you would see in a family tree.

127. A tool that tests the code in an HTML document for syntax and coding errors is called an HTML _____________.

1.    Syntax tester
2.    Validator
3.    Coder
4.    Editor

answer:

B. Some Web browsers can be more forgiving than others when rendering a page that contains errors, so testing a Web site using a validator is a wise step because the validator may find errors that are not readily apparent when viewing the page with your favorite browser.

128. The term ___________ refers to the process of simulating heavy traffic in order to determine if the infrastructure hosting a Web site can provide adequate performance in the "real world."

1.     DoS
2.    Load testing
3.    Packet flood
4.    Pinging

answer:

B. Load testing refers to testing a site under a simulated heavy load to determine if it can handle the amount of traffic that it will likely have to support in actual operation. Ideally, load testing should be done before the site is made available to customers, whether those customers are inside or outside your organization. Many Web site operators have discovered too late that their Web infrastructure could not keep pace with user demand.

129. A link checker is used to:

1.    Determine if the routers between specific systems are functional.
2.    Test the reliability of a Web server.
3.    Test the hyperlinks in a Web document for validity.
4.    Determine the validity of the HTML formatting tags in a Web document.

answer:

C. A link checker tests the hyperlinks in an HTML document for validity. The rapidly changing nature of the World Wide Web makes keeping the hyperlinks in a Web document a challenge, and link checkers take some of the drudgery out of the process of keeping the hyperlinks up to date. If you don't use a link checker on a regular basis, your users will likely see a dreaded "404 Object Not Found" error before too long.

130. A WYSIWYG HTML editor could also be called a:

1.     Text editor
2.    GUI editor
3.    Graphics editor
4.    Frontal editor

answer:

B. A WYSIWYG (What You See Is What You Get; pronounced "wizzywig") allows you to edit HTML code in a GUI (Graphical User Interface). WYSIWYG editors are generally easier to use but Web pages generated in WYSIWHYG editors often require "cleaning up" with a text editor.

131. Which of the following HTML codes will cause a browser to display text using 12-point Arial as the font?

1.    <Font Face="Arial" SIZE="12">
2.    <Font ="Arial" SIZE="12">
3.    <Font Face="Arial" POINT="12">
4.    <Font Face="Arial 12">

answer:

A. The HTML code <Font Face="Ariel" SIZE="12"> instructs the browser to use 12-point Arial as the font.

132. To add a line across a page using HTML, you can use which of the following tags:

1.    <BR>
2.    <HR>
3.    <LINE>
4.    <LIN>

answer:

B. The HTML tag <HR> inserts a horizontal line, known as a horizontal rule, across the page.

133. To increase the font size one level in an HTML document, which of the following HTML tags would you use?

1.    <UPONE> . . . </UPONE>
2.    <PLUS> . . . </PLUS>
3.    <BIG> . . . </BIG>
4.    <INCREASE> . . . </INCREASE>

answer:

C. The HTML tag set <BIG> . . . </BIG> will increase the font size one level.

Networking and Infrastructure

134. To transfer email between networks, what hardware connectivity device should you use between them?

1.     Gateway
2.     Bridge
3.     Router
4.     Hub

answer:

A. A Gateway is an upper-layer device that can work between applications, such as email, and send data between networks. The other devices are not capable of working at the application layer: Bridges work at the Data Link Layer, Routers at the Network Layer and Hubs at the Physical Layer.

135. The number of channels in a T1 connection is:

1.     4
2.    8
3.    16
4.    24

answer:

D. T1 = 24 channels, speed up to 1,544 Mbps.

136. A packet-switching technology that requires flow control and error detection for each circuit would be considered:

1.     Frame Relay
2.    X.25
3.    ATM
4.    E1

answer:

B. X.25 is the oldest of the technologies listed. It requires flow-control and error detection because these features were assumed to be needed on all cicuits when X.25 was created. A and C is incorrect because these two technologies operate faster by avoiding these steps, and E1 is the European equivalent of T1.

137. ISPs connect to the Internet through:

1.     Multilink
2.    CCITTs
3.    NAPs
4.    DS-0

answer:

C. Network Access Points atre used by Internet Service Providers to connect to the Internet and form the backbone. A is incorrect because Multilink is used by users to combine the speed of a number of modems into a single connection, B is incorrect because CCITT is the committee behind the X.25 standard. D is incorrect because DS-0 is a single channel within a T1.

138. Marty hears about an interesting discussion of server security issues taking place in the newsgroup comp.security.misc and wants to take a look. What protocol would Marty use to access his ISP's Usenet news server?

1.     NNTP
2.    SMTP
3.    IMAP
4.    LDAP

answer:

A. Network News Transport Protocol (NNTP) is used to communicate between Usenet news servers and news clients (such as Outlook Express, Netscape Communicator, or Free Agent). .

139. Email clients typically use either the ________ or the ___________ protocol when retrieving e-mail messages from a mail server.

1.    LPR and FTP
2.    POP3 and IMAP
3.    SMTP and HTTP
4.    NNTP and LDAP

answer:

B. Most e-mail clients can use either the POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) or IMAP (Internet Message Application Protocol) protocols for retrieving messages from a mail server.

140. George needs to reboot his Linux based Web server at the corporate office with the command "shutdown -r now". What protocol can he use to issue this command from his system at home, saving him a trip into the office?

1.     HTTP
2.    Gopher
3.    Telnet
4.    FTP

answer:

C. Telnet allows a client to connect remotely to a telnet server and execute commands on the telnet server just as if the user were sitting at the server console. Virtually all TCP/IP aware operating systems, including Windows 9x and NT, ship with a Telnet client by default.

141. To determine the current IP configuration information for a Windows 95 TCP/IP host, use the command:

1.    IPCONFIG
2.    IFCONFIG
3.    WINIPCFG
4.    NBTSTAT

answer:

C. The WINIPCFG command is available on a Windows 95 or 98 system and can be used to display the IP configuration information for the host.

142. To determine the WINS node type and the WINS servers currently being used by a Windows NT system, which of the following commands is entered in a command prompt window?

1.     NBTSTAT
2.    NBTSTAT -WINS
3.    IPCONFIG
4.    IPCONFIG /all

answer:

D. The IPCONFIG command by itself does not display information about the WINS server settings or the node type currently being used. To see this additional information, along with information such as the MAC address of the network interface card (NIC) and the current DNS servers, use the command IPCONFIG /all. (Note: these commands in Windows NT are not case sensitive.)

143. The ARP protocol is used to determine the:

1.     IP address of the local proxy server.
2.    Data link layer address that corresponds to a particular IP address.
3.    NetBIOS name that corresponds to a particular IP address.
4.    Speed of the links between two hosts on a TCP/IP network.

answer:

B. The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to determine the data link address that corresponds to a specific IP address.

144. Which of the following commands would display the output shown here:
Tracing route to www.comptia.org [209.0.85.150] over a maximum of 30 hops: 1 2 ms 1 ms 1 ms 192.168.50.254 2 20 ms 19 ms 19 ms 216-119-143-129.ipset23.wt.net [216.119.143.129] 3 22 ms 21 ms 29 ms 192-168-0-222.wt.net [192.168.0.222] 4 20 ms 18 ms 21 ms serial2-0-6.hsa1.hou1.Level3.net [209.245.208.1] 5 27 ms 36 ms 24 ms hsipaccess1.Dallas1.Level3.net [209.244.2.16] 6 51 ms 50 ms 46 ms core2.Chicago1.Level3.net [209.244.2.50] 7 47 ms 45 ms 47 ms core1.Chicago1.Level3.net [209.244.2.65] 8 47 ms 44 ms 47 ms gigaethernet6-0.ipcolo1.Chicago1.Level3.net [209.244.8.42] 9 46 ms 54 ms 57 ms www.comptia.org [209.0.85.150] Trace complete.

1.     NBTSTAT -t www.comptia.org
2.    IPCONFIG -trace www.comptia.org
3.    PING -trace www.comptia.org
4.    TRACERT www.comptia.org

answer:

D. The TRACERT utility traces the route between two TCP/IP hosts, displaying the output shown here. IPCONFIG can display the TCP/IP configuration of the local machine, but has no -trace option. PING can test the connectivity between two hosts, but does not report the route taken. NBTSTAT displays NetBIOS information and does not display routing information.

145. Which of the following utilities is used to verify that a host address is valid?

1.     PING
2.    IPCONFIG
3.    TRACERT
4.    WINIPCFG

answer:

A. The PING utility tests that a host's FQDN or IP address is valid by sending ICMP echo request messages to the address being tested. If the address is valid, the host will return the requested echo reply message, proving its existence. TRACERT is used to test the route that would be used to transfer packets between two sites, and the IPCONFIG and WINIPCFG utilities, used in Windows NT and Windows 9x respectively, display configuration information but do not test connections.

146. Which of the following commands would display the following output? Active Connections Proto Local Address Foreign Address State TCP 192.168.50.25:1033 192.168.100.35:119 ESTABLISHED TCP 192.168.50.25:1052 192.168.50.254:23 CLOSE_WAIT

1.     NBTSTAT -c
2.    NBTSTAT -n
3.    NETSTAT -n
4.    NETSTAT -c

answer:

C. The NETSTAT -n command displays a list of the current TCP/IP sessions. NETSTAT -c is not a valid option. NBTSTAT -c displays a list of the currently cached NetBIOS names, and NBTSTAT -n displays the hosts NetBIOS names.

147. Which of the following protocols can be used to connect to the Internet via a serial connection? (Choose all that apply.)

1.     ARP
2.    SLIP
3.    PPP
4.    IMAP

answer:

B and C. Both SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol) and PPP (Point to Point Protocol) can be used to connect to the Internet over serial connections such as dial-up phone lines. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is a protocol used to determine the hardware address that corresponds to a particular physical address, and IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is used to access e-mail stored on an IMAP mail server. .

148. Fred is the DNS administrator for his company. Fred's company, owner of the fredscompany.com domain name, wants to use a single physical machine to act as both their Web server and mail server. They want their clients and customers to be able to refer the mail server as mail.fredscompany.com and the Web server as www.fredscompany.com. Which of the following entries should Fred add to the DNS database so that customers can send mail to username@fredsdomain.com and browse the company Website using http://www.fredsdomain.com?

1.     An A record for www.fredscompany.com, a CNAME record for mail.fredscompany.com pointing to www.fredscompany.com, and an MX record pointing to mail.fredscompany.com.
2.    A CNAME record for www.fredscompany.com, an ALIASNAME record for mail.fredscompany.com pointing to www.fredscompany.com, and an MX record pointing to mail.fredscompany.com.
3.    An A record for www.fredscompany.com, a CNAME record for mail.fredscompany.com pointing to www.fredscompany.com, and an NS record pointing to mail.fredscompany.com.
4.    A CNAME record for www.fredscompany.com, an ALIASNAME record for mail.fredscompany.com pointing to www.fredscompany.com, and an NS record pointing to mail.fredscompany.com.

answer:

A. While there is more than one method to accomplish the stated goal, of the supplied answers only A will work. An A record is an address record that simply records the IP address that corresponds to a specific IP address. A CNAME (canonical name) provides an alias for a particular name. In the example given in answer A, a DNS client attempting to resolve the IP address for mail.fredscompany.com would be given the IP address of www.fredscompany.com instead. Since www.fredscompany.com (the Web server) and mail.fredscompany.com (the mail server) both reside on the same physical machine and share the same IP address, this method will work fine. The MX (Mail eXchanger) record tells mail servers where to send e-mail messages addressed to any users in the fredscompany.com domain. Note that the name mail.fredscompany.com has no special significance to the mail servers @md naming the mail server "mail" is a convenience to the user. The mail servers use the MX record to determine the IP address to which they should send mail for a given domain. An NS (Name Server) record designates a machine as a name server for the domain. There is no such thing as an ALIASNAME record

149. Which of the following can be used in a DNS name? (Choose all that apply.)

1.     Letters
2.    Numbers
3.    Spaces
4.    Hyphens

answer:

A, B, and D. A DNS name can contain up to 26 characters, consisting of letters, numbers, and hyphens. Spaces are not allowed. Periods are used to separate the name into pieces, but otherwise punctuation (*,$,@,#) is not allowed. The limits on the use of punctuation are sensible in light of the use of many of these symbols for other special purposes, such as the "@" symbol's use in e-mail addresses.

150. The DNS root servers maintain a database of:

1.     Every Internet connected host's IP address.
2.    The addresses of every Internet-connected Web server.
3.    The e-mail addresses of all Internet users.
4.    Name servers of the top-level domains.

answer:

D. The DNS root servers maintain a database of the names and IP addresses of the DNS servers for top-level domains such as .com, .edu, .org, and so on. DNS root servers can then refer other DNS servers to a name server that has more information about a particular domain. DNS uses a distributed database @md no single DNS server knows the IP address of every system on the Internet. In fact, no single system could possibly keep track of the entire Internet due to the high rate of change. Instead, the root servers maintain a list of "who to ask for more information."

151. The IP address 127.0.0.1 refers to the:

1.     Default gateway.
2.    Local machine.
3.    DNS server.
4.    WINS server.

answer:

B. The address 127.0.0.1 refers to the local machine, and is sometimes called the localhost or loopback address. Most TCP/IP systems have an entry for the name localhost in their HOSTS file pointing to 127.0.0.1. The localhost address has nothing to do with the settings for default gateway, DNS server, or WINS servers.

152. Which of the following is a Class B address?

1.     216.119.159.12
2.    10.125.25.35
3.    191.25.30.40
4.    127.0.0.1

answer:

C. The address 191.25.30.40 falls within the class B range. The address 216.119.159.12 is a class C address, the address 10.125.25.35 is a class A address, and 127.0.0.1 is the localhost address used for loopback testing.

153. Which of the following IP addresses belong to the same network as 192.168.43.5, assuming the default subnet mask?

1.     192.168.100.5
2.    192.168.43.100
3.    192.169.43.5
4.    193.168.43.6

answer:

B. The address 192.168.43.5 is a class C address, and the default subnet mask for a class C address is 255.255.255.0. Therefore, the address 192.168.43.5 refers to host 5 on network 192.168.43.0. The only other IP address listed that is on the network 192.168.43.0 is 192.168.43.100. The other IP addresses listed all belong to other networks.

154. The command "PING 127.0.0.1" tests a host's connection to:

1.     The default gateway.
2.    The DNS server.
3.    The WINS server.
4.    Itself

answer:

D. The address 127.0.0.1 refers to the local machine, and is sometimes called the localhost address. Most TCP/IP systems have an entry for the name localhost in their HOSTS file pointing to 127.0.0.1. The localhost address has nothing to do with the settings for default gateway, DNS server, or WINS servers.

155. Sally wants to add 50 new machines to her network. These new systems do not require Internet connectivity, but must be able to communicate via TCP/IP with servers internal to her network. Kathy decides not to obtain any additional Internet IP addresses from her ISP for these new machines. Which of the following address ranges should Sally use for her new systems?

1.     192.169.20.1@nd192.169.20.254
2.    200.10.10.1@nd200.10.10.254
3.    192.168.50.1@nd192.168.50.254
4.    190.169.0.1@nd190.169.0.254

answer:

C. Systems that do not need to access the Internet directly can use a set of addresses specifically set aside as private addresses. Answer C is correct because it falls within the range defined as private addresses. The private addresses are: 10.0.0.0@nd10.255.255.255, 172.16.0.0@nd172.31.255.255, and 192.168.0.0@nd192.168.255.255.

156. What is the default subnet mask for the IP address 216.119.148.72?

1.     255.0.0.0
2.    255.255.0.0
3.    255.255.255.0
4.    255.255.255.255

answer:

C. Every valid IP address belongs to a class, and each class has its own default subnet mask. The default subnet mask for a class A address is 255.0.0.0, the default subnet mask for a class B address is 255.255.0.0, and the default subnet mask for a class C address is 255.255.255.0. The address 216.119.148.72 is a class C address, and therefore its default subnet mask is 255.255.255.0.

157. Which of the following addresses is used to broadcast to all hosts?

1.     192.168.0.0
2.    127.0.0.1
3.    255.255.255.255
4.    255.255.255.0

answer:

C. The broadcast address 255.255.255.255 (which is all 1's in binary) is used to send a message to all hosts. Because broadcast messages are not forwarded by routers in most cases, the effect of sending a packet to 255.255.255.255 is to send it to all hosts on the local subnet. The address 127.0.0.1 is the loopback address, used by a TCP/IP host to send packets to itself. The address 192.168.0.0 is the network address of one of the private address blocks. The value 255.255.255.0 is the default subnet mask for a class C address.

158. E-mail clients such as Eudora or Outlook Express communicate with their outgoing mail server using which protocol?

1.     POP3
2.    IMAP
3.    Sendmail
4.    SMTP

answer:

D. E-mail clients send mail to their outgoing mail server using SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol). POP3 and IMAP are protocols used by clients to retrieve e-mail from a mail server. Sendmail is a popular SMTP server, but there are other types of mail servers that can use SMTP, including Microsoft Exchange, Lotus Notes, and QMail.

159. The FTP protocol is useful for uploading Web content to a Web server, but should not be used:

1.     In high security environments because it sends usernames and passwords in clear text, making the server vulnerable to hackers.
2.    When uploading content to a Microsoft IIS Web server because Microsoft does not support FTP.
3.    When uploading data from a Microsoft Windows 95 system because Windows 95 has no built in support for FTP.
4.    Over slow Internet connections because FTP requires a minimum bandwidth of 128 Kbps.

answer:

A. FTP should not be used in high security environments because user login information is transmitted over the network in clear text.

160. When downloading executable programs using FTP, you should set the transfer mode to:

1.     Executable
2.    Streaming
3.    Binary
4.    ASCII

answer:

C. When downloading binary data such as executable or graphic file formats, use binary mode. Only use ASCII mode when transferring text files. In most cases, you can set your FTP client to autodetect the transfer mode. When set to autodetect, the FTP client looks at the file extension of the file being downloaded and compares it to a list of common extensions for text files: .txt, .readme, .1st, etc. FTP does not have a streaming or executable mode.

161. Which of the following technologies can be used to connect to an ISP that dynamically assigns IP addresses using DHCP?

1.     PPTP
2.    PPP
3.    SLIP
4.    NNTP

answer:

B. While both SLIP and PPP can be used to connect to an ISP over a dial-up line, SLIP does not support dynamically assigned IP addresses. In order to use DHCP, you must use PPP. .

162. The bandwidth available on a T1 connection is:

1.     64 Kbps
2.    1.5 Kbps
3.    1.5 Mbps
4.    64 Mbps

answer:

C. A T1 (also known as a DS1) connection offers 1.5 Mbps of bandwidth. T1 lines are often used be corporations to connect multiple sites together in a corporate intranet, and for ISPs to connect to the Internet. .

163. The ___________ protocol defines methods for computers on different public networks to communicate via an intermediary computer system.

1.     X.400
2.     X.500
3.     X.25
4.     X.DSL

answer:

C. X.25 provides a set of standards for computers connected to different public networks, such as AOL or CompuServe, to communicate using an intermediary computer system such as the Internet. .

164. ___________ uses existing copper telephone wiring to provide data transfer speeds up to 1.5 Mbps, making it an excellent choice for connecting private homes to the Internet.

1.     Ethernet
2.    DSL
3.    Frame Relay
4.    ATM

answer:

B. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL), which comes in both a synchronous (same speed in both directions) and asynchronous (different upload and download speeds) versions, runs over existing copper telephone cabling. DSL service may or may not be available in a specific location because it requires the location being serviced to be within a certain distance (which varies with the variety of DSL being used) of the telephone company's DSL equipment. .

165. A T3 connection transmits data over 672 channels, providing an aggregate bandwidth of __________.

1.     1.5 Mbps
2.    784 Kbps
3.     44.74 Mbps
4.    1 Gbps

answer:

C. A T3 connection can provide an aggregate bandwidth of 44.74 Mbps. A T1 line, another common alternative, provides 1.5 Mbps of bandwidth. .

166. The term "E1" refers to:

1.     The original Ethernet standard.
2.    The European equivalent of a T1 line.
3.     A standard for secure e-commerce transactions.
4.     A standard for formatting SMTP e-mail messages.

answer:

B. European telecommunications companies use different technology than their U.S. counterparts. The functional equivalent of the T1 line used in the U.S., which provides 1.54 Mbps, the E1 carrier used in Europe provides 2.048 Mbps of bandwith. .

167. ADSL and SDSL differ in that:

1.     ADSL uploads data at a different, slower rate than it downloads, while SDSL downloads and uploads data at the same speed.
2.    SDSL uploads data at a different, slower rate than it downloads, while ADSL downloads and uploads data at the same speed.
3.    ADSL is the American standard for DSL, while SDSL is the European, "standardized," version.
4.    ADSL runs over copper wiring, while SDSL requires fiber optic cabling.

answer:

A. Asynchronous DSL (ADSL) uploads data at a different, slower rate than it downloads, while Synchronous DSL (SDSL) downloads and uploads data at the same speed.

168. An ISDN connection consists of two channels that when used together provide an aggregate bandwidth of ___________.

1.     64 Kbps
2.    128 Kbps
3.    256 Kbps
4.    384 Kbps

answer:

B. ISDN connections consist of two 64 Kbps channels that when used together provide an aggregate bandwidth of 128 Kbps. In some cases, companies that do not require the full 128 Kbps will use only one channel.

169. Every NIC has a unique, 48 bit address assigned to it by its manufacturer. This address is called a(n) ___________:

1.     IP address.
2.     I/O address.
3.     MAC address.
4.    Transport Address.

answer:

C. Every NIC (Network Interface Card) has its own MAC (Media Access Control) address. The NIC's manufacturer assigns these addresses. In TCP/IP networks, ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is used to determine which IP addresses correspond to which MAC addresses. .

170. Which of the following standards defines a standard for modems capable of transmitting or receiving data at 33,600 Kbps?

1.     V.32bis
2.     V.34
3.     V.34bis
4.     V.42

answer:

D. V.34 defines a standard for modems to communicate at speeds of up to 33,600 Kbps. 33,600 Kbps is the maximum speed @md line conditions can cause a V.34 modem to operate at a lower speed.

171. A V.90 modem allows download speeds of up to:

1.    33,600 Kbps
2.    28,800 Kbps
3.    56,000 Kbps
4.    128 Kbps

answer:

C. A V.90 modem can achieve download speeds of up to 56,000 Kbps under ideal conditions. Note, however, that V.90 modems cannot upload at this speed @md upload speeds are limited to 33,600 under the V.90 standard. .

172. A device that converts digital signals into analog and vice versa is called a ___________.

1.     UART
2.    Bridge
3.    Modem
4.    Transceiver

answer:

C. A modem (MOdulator/DEModulator) is a device that converts analog signals to digital and vice versa. Note that some devices commonly referred to as modems, such as cable and DSL "modems" are not true modems because they deal entirely with digital signals @md they are referred to as modems because they often replace modems as a means to connect to the Internet.

173. A standard analog modem uses a(n) _________ connector to connect to the telephone line.

1.     BNC
2.    RJ-11
3.     RG-58
4.    RJ-45

answer:

B. A modem connecting to standard phone lines uses an RJ-11 connector, the same connector used by standard telephones. .

174. A 10baseT Ethernet NIC uses a(n) _________ connector.

1.     BNC
2.     RJ-11
3.     RG-58
4.     RJ-45

answer:

D. RJ-45 connectors are used for a wide variety of networking technologies, including 10baseT Ethernet and Token Ring networks. .

175. Which of the following commands will reset a modem?

1.     ATH
2.     ATDT
3.     ATZ
4.     ATR

answer:

C Modems respond to a set of standardized commands known as AT commands. The command ATZ will reset a modem. .

176. The acronym NOS stands for:

1.     Network Operations Service
2.     Network Operating System
3.    Network Options Settings
4.    Network Online Service

answer:

B. NOS is a common term used to describe operating systems that include network functonality, such as Novell NetWare, Unix, and Windows NT.

177. Which of the following protocols can be used to connect two IPX networks via an IP-based network such as the Internet?

1.     SLIP
2.    PPTP
3.    PPP
4.    ADSL

answer:

B. PPTP (Point to Point Tunneling Protocol) can encapsulate a variety of network packets, including IP, IPX, and AppleTalk, inside IP packets for secure transmission across an IP based network such as the Internet. .

178. A single, stand-alone device that functions as a DHCP server, DNS server, proxy server, mail server, and Internet gateway for a small office is sometimes referred to as a _________.

1.     Bridge
2.    Internet-in-a-Box
3.    Router
4.    Redirector

answer:

B. Multi-function devices that both connect an office to the Internet and provide other infrastructure services are sometimes referred to as "Internet-in-a-box" devices. .

179. A __________ is a device that permits or denies the entrance of packets into a network based on a set of rules defining what types of traffic are permitted or allowed.

1.     Router
2.    Gateway
3.    Firewall
4.    Switch

answer:

C. A firewall is any device that filters out unwanted or undesirable traffic based on a set of predefined rules. Firewall functions are sometimes provided by routers, gateways, or switches, but these devices do not necessarily provide the functions of a firewall. .

180. An LDAP server provides:

1.     Automatic configuration information to clients on an IP-based network.
2.    Secure connections across the Internet for transmitting credit card information.
3.     NetBIOS name resolution for client computers.
4.     A directory of people, files, and devices on a network.

answer:

D. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) provides a standard for maintaining and accessing a directory of the people and resources available on a network. .

181. A list server sends messages to subscribers using which protocol?

1.     SMTP
2.    NNTP
3.    HTTP
4.    FTP

answer:

A. List servers send e-mail messages to subscribers using the standard Internet protocol for sending e-mail across the Internet, SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol). .

182. On a UNIX or Linux server, the server side of a protocol such as HTTP or FTP is usually handled by a special program called a _______________, which runs continuously in order to be available to handle incoming requests from clients.

1.     Background task
2.    Core program
3.    Daemon
4.    Butler

answer:

C. A daemon is a program that runs continuously, making itself available to handle incoming client requests as needed. In a Windows NT system, the functional equivalent of a UNIX daemon is called a "service."

183. A system running a Telnet server can:

1.     Remotely execute commands on another system.
2.    Allow remote users to execute commands on the system running the Telnet server as though they were typing the same commands directly at the server's console.
3.    Allow users to upload files to the system running the Telnet server from remote locations.
4.    Allow users to download files from the system running the Telnet server to remote locations.

answer:

B. Telnet allows users running a Telnet client to execute commands on the Telnet server just as though they were typing directly at the Telnet server's console. Telnet does not provide a mechanism for uploading or downloading files, a task handled by other protocols such as FTP and HTTP. .

184. The high speed Internet links that connect the major regional Internet gateways form what is known as the Internet ___________.

1.     Backbone
2.    Linkages
3.    Bridges
4.    Routers

answer:

A. The Internet backbone consists of high-speed links connecting major regional Internet gateways. ISPs connected directly to the backbone are sometimes referred to as Tier 1 ISPs.

185. A(n) _______ is a connection used by ISPs to route their traffic to the Internet backbone.

1.     PPP
2.    ASP
3.    POP
4.    POTS

answer:

C. A Point of Presence (POP) is a connection used to route traffic to the backbone of the Internet.

186. Bob cannot connect to his e-mail server. He suspects that the problem lies with one of the links between his computer and the e-mail server and not with the e-mail server itself. After confirming that other users at other locations can connect to the e-mail server, what tool can he use to confirm his suspicion and determine which link is causing the problem?

1.     ARP
2.    PING
3.    TRACERT
4.    POP3

answer:

C. The TRACERT utility (or TRACEROUTE on some Linux and UNIX systems) can trace the route between two systems and assist in determining which part of a route is failing. PING can determine whether or not a system can be reached, but does not provide information about which links might be at fault in the event of a failure. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is used to map IP addresses to their corresponding hardware addresses. POP3 is used to download e-mail from a e-mail server, but cannot diagnose routing problems.

187. Fred's users complain that access to their company's internal Web server is too slow during peak hours. Off-peak performance is not a problem. Fred determines that the existing bandwidth is more than enough to handle the peak load. What steps should Fred consider to improve the Web server's performance? (Choose all that apply.)

1.    Add more RAM to the clients.
2.    Add more RAM to the server.
3.    Serve all pages using HTTPS instead of HTTP.
4.    Upgrade the processor on the server.

answer:

B and D. Upgrading the processor and RAM on the server may improve performance, especially if the server is proving access to processor-intensive dynamic content such as Active Server Pages. If the clients can access the server with adequate performance during off peak hours, adding more RAM to the clients will not likely improve performance.

188. A ________ is a server that contains an exact duplicate of the data stored on another server, providing an alternative site from which users can access the content.

1.     Proxy
2.    Mirror
3.    Partner
4.    Neighbor

answer:

B. A mirror keeps an exact duplicate of the content from another site, providing an alternative site from which users can access content. Mirrors are often geographically dispersed in order to provide users with better performance and to reduce traffic across the Internet backbone by providing a server that is located closer to the client in terms of the number of network hops. .

189. Analog modems use the standard telephone network already in place for handling voice data. The standard phone network is sometimes referred to as _______.

1.     PPTP
2.    POTS
3.    PVTS
4.    TPNM

answer:

B. The acronym POTS refers to "Plain Old Telephone Service," the standard phones service in place for handling analog voice traffic. POTS is also referred to as the PSTN (Public Switched Telephone Network) on the exam. .

i-Net Basics

190. The rules that govern how data and control-signals are sent between two communicating computers or network devices is a

1.     Network Operating System
2.    Protocol
3.    Daemon
4.    Client

answer:

B. A protocol establishes the rules and guidelines to be followed by two computers, devices or programs when they communicate for a specific purpose. TCP is a protocol, and TCP/IP is a protocol suite.

191. The device that responds to requests from network clients is a:

1.     Client server
2.    Cache server
3.    Server
4.    Application server

answer:

C. Both Application servers and Cache servers respond to requests, but the logical anser is server.

192. The operating system with which the TCP/IP networking protocol was first associated was:

1.     Windows NT
2.    Windows 95
3.    Unix
4.    Linux

answer:

C. When the department of Defense was looking for an operating system to standardize upon, it wanted one that could offer networking capabilities. None of the other listed operating systems existed during this time period, and TCP/IP was formulated for, and assosiciated with Unix.

193. A networking device that passes all incoming traffic out to all attached ports is a(n):

1.     Gateway
2.    Hub
3.    Router
4.    Switch

answer:

B. Hub is correct for it passes the data to all attached ports. Gateways sends data between upper layer applications. Routers sends data to specific adresses and switches to specific ports.

194. Your network is running NetBEUI and TCP/IP protocols, and you want to connect your network to two other locations. One of those locations is using only NetBEUI, and the other is using only TCP/IP. What connectivity device should you add to your site to connect to the other two?

1.     Router
2.    Hub
3.    Bridge
4.    Brouter

answer:

D. NetBEUI is non routable and TCP/IP is routable. A Brouter can work with both these and allow non-routable and routable protocols to work together. A Hub cannot be used to combine multiple networks, a Router can work with only routable protocols and a Bridge wil use non-routable protocols only between two locations.

195. To transfer e-mail between networks, what hardware connectivity device should you use between them?

1.     Gateway
2.    Bridge
3.    Router
4.    Hub

answer:

A. A Gateway is an upper-layer device that can work between application, such as e-mail, and send data between networks.

196. What port number does FTP use?

1.    110
2.    25
3.    20
4.    23

answer:

C. All applications in a TCP/IP environment use a specific port number to manage connections between hosts. The FTP protocol uses port 20 by default.

197. www.comptia.org is an example of a(n):

1.     FQDN
2.    WINS server entry
3.    NetBIOS name
4.    TCP/IP name

answer:

A. www.comptia.org is an example of a Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN), which is the full DNS name of a host. Using this name, the TCP/IP client can contact a DNS server to resolve that FQDN to an IP address. Note that the use of www as the first part of the FQDN of a Web server is a convention and not a rule. There is nothing to stop the network administrator from naming to his or her Web server sabrina.comptia.org. However, if the administrator wants to make the name of his or her Web server easy for others to guess, they will usually begin the name of their Web servers with www.

198. In the URL http://www.bizpay.com:1083, the number 1083 represents:

1.    The IP address of the server.
2.    The port number at which to connect to the server.
3.    The socket number at which to connect to the server.
4.    The NetBIOS extension at which to connect to the server.

answer:

B. The number following a colon (":") in a URL specifies the port number at which to connect to the server. In this example, the URL http://www.bizpay.com:1083 instructs the browser to connect to the server www.bizpay.com using the HTTP protocol at the nonstandard port of 1083. Although the vast majority of Web servers use the standard port 80 for HTTP, administrators sometimes choose to use a different port number either to set up special handling for a site, such as making a site difficult to stumble across accidentally, and thereby providing a form of security.

199. By default, the Telnet protocol uses port:

1.     20
2.    80
3.    23
4.    110

answer:

C. Each of the commonly used protocols a TCP/IP network is assigned a port number. The port number for Telnet is port 23. Port 80 is commonly used for HTTP, port 20 is commonly used for FTP, and port 110 is commonly used for POP3.

200. An Internet service provider (ISP) that brags about being a Tier 1 or Tier 2 ISP is claiming that it:

1.     Is a founding ISP of the Internet.
2.     Have highly reliable Web server hardware.
3.     Is directly connected to an NAP or is within one hop of a NAP.
4.     In possession of a class A license.

answer:

C. A Tier 1 or Tier 2 ISP is an ISP that is directly connected to a Network Access Point (NAP), which is a connection to the backbone of the Internet. While a Tier 1 or Tier 2 ISP might very well be in possession of a class A license or have highly reliable Web server hardware, these factors have nothing to do with being a Tier 1 or Tier 2 ISP.

201. A proxy server that keeps copies of Web pages requested by one client and provides them to other clients without necessarily retrieving a new copy from the source Web server is functioning as a:

1.    DNS server
2.    Web server
3.    WINS server
4.    Cache server

answer:

D. Most proxy servers act as cache servers, providing previously stored copies of Web documents to clients in order to minimize bandwidth usage or to provide control over Internet usage. DNS and WINS servers provide name resolution services to clients, and Web servers serve up Web pages. While a machine functioning as a DNS, WINS, or Web server might also be acting as a caching proxy server, the functions of a caching proxy server are unrelated to these other potential functions.

202. The combination of an IP address and a port number defines a ____________.

1.     URL
2.    NetBIOS name
3.    Socket
4.    Node

answer:

C. A connection in TCP/IP is managed using a combination of an IP address and a port number, known as a socket. When you type a URL such as http:\\www.bizpay.com into your Web browser, the Web browser assumes that you want to connect to that server using port 80 (the default port for HTTP) and then determines the IP address of the server and opens a socket connection: 216.119.149.122:80. The combination of the IP address (216.119.149.122) and the port number (80) define the socket.

203. A search engine that relies on a database based on the meta tags of the indexed Web pages is using a ________________ index.

1.     Keyword
2.    Arachnid
3.    Full text
4.    Static catalog

answer:

A. Because meta tags (on which the index is based) consist of keywords relating to the content of each Web site, the resulting index is called a keyword index.

204. When designing a Web site for use by the general public, which of the following factors should be considered? (Choose all that apply.)

1.     Support for a variety of browsers.
2.    Support for multiple screen resolutions.
3.     Support for users with low-bandwidth connections.
4.     Support for DHCP clients.

answer:

A, B, and C. When designing a Web site, don't assume that your users will all be running Internet Explorer 5, using 17" monitors, and connecting to the Internet via T1 connections. If you do, many users will find your site too slow and difficult to use. There is no need to take DHCP into account when designing Web sites, however, because the HTTP protocol used between the Web browser client and the Web server do not care how the client obtains its IP address configuration.

205. A user complains that every time he downloads the file POLICY.DOC from the corporate FTP server, the file is corrupt and unreadable in Microsoft Word. Donna, the system administrator, confirms that there is nothing wrong with the copy of the file stored on the server. What is the likely cause of the file corruption that the user is experiencing?

1.     FTP cannot be used to download word processing files because the FTP download process corrupts the file.
2.    The user downloaded the file using ASCII mode instead of binary mode.
3.    The user downloaded the file using binary mode instead of ASCII mode.
4.    MS Word cannot open .doc files.

answer:

B. The FTP protocol can download files in two modes, binary and ASCII. ASCII text mode should only be used for downloading simple text files that contain only ASCII text. Word processing files, such as those used by Microsoft Word, contain both text and formatting information and should be downloaded using binary mode. In most cases, the FTP client automatically determines which mode to use, but sometimes it is necessary to specify the appropriate mode.

206. When designing a Web site, you should ensure that it displays properly at which of the following resolutions? (Choose all that apply.)

1.     480 x 640
2.    640 x 480
3.    800 x 600
4.    600 x 800
5.    1024 x 768

answer:

B, C, and E. 640x480, 800 x 600, and 1024 x768 are all common screen resolutions. A common mistake made by Web site designers is that they use a system set to a high resolution when designing a site and then fail to double check that the site displays properly at other resolutions.

207. Brian wishes to download the latest version of any Web page each time he accesses a site. To do this, what must he ensure is disabled?

1.     Show picture objects.
2.    Digital certificates.
3.    The browser's caching function.
4.    The browser's history function.

answer:

C. By disabling his browser's cache, Brian increases the chance that he is seeing the most up-to-date version of a Web page . However, if he is connecting to the site through a caching or proxy server, he may still be provided with an out-of-date copy.)

208. A cache server knows to update its copy of a cached site:

1.     Based on HTTP header information.
2.    When the client issues an "HTTP CACHE BYPASS" request.
3.    Every 10 minutes.
4.    When notified by the source server of a change in the site.

answer:

A. Web servers include information in their HTTP headers that help cache servers determine when they should contact the server for an updated copy of the page.

209. Which of the following types of search engines would be most appropriate in finding every occurrence of the word "CompTIA" that appears in a Web site?

1.     Catalogue index
2.    Full-text index
3.    Keyword index
4.    Java index

answer:

B. A full text index is the best choice for finding every occurrence of a specific word within a Web site, because unlike the other choices listed it searches the text contained in indexed documents rather than summaries of key words or catalogs of document titles or Meta data.

210. A plus sign (+) in a search string should be interpreted as:

1.     A new line
2.    The end of field
3.    A space
4.    A carriage return

answer:

C. A plus sign (+) in a search string indicates a space. For example: Name=babe+ruth

i-Net Clients

211. Fred attempts to connect to his Web server using the URL http://www.myserver.com and receives the following message from his browser: "Cannot find server or DNS Error." Testing further, Fred discovers that he can connect to the server using the URL http://192.168.100.53. Which of the following actions could Fred take to allow him to connect to the server using his original URL? (Choose all that apply.)

1.     Add an entry for www.myserver.com to his corporation's WINS database.
2.    Add an entry for www.myserver.com to his corporation's DNS database.
3.    Add an entry for www.myserver.com to his workstation's HOSTS file.
4.    Add an entry for www.myserver.com to his workstation's LMHOSTS file

answer:

B and C. Native TCP/IP applications such as HTTP and FTP rely on HOSTS files and DNS servers for name resolution. The HOSTS file accesses the functional equivalent of a personal address book, providing a list of names and IP addresses for each machine. A DNS server provides a centralized database of names and IP addresses. Microsoft applications based on the NetBIOS protocol, however, use a different mechanism for resolving names to IP addresses. Microsoft applications such as "map Network Drive" and "Find Computer" use the LMHOSTS file or a WINS server for name resolution.

212. _______ is a common protocol used to automatically assign TCP/IP configuration settings to client systems.

1.     DNS
2.    WINS
3.    SNMP
4.    DHCP

answer:

D. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) can assign TCP/IP settings to clients that request it. The settings that can be assigned via DHCP include IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, DNS server, WINS server, and more. DHCP centralizes the assignment of IP addresses and simplifies the administration of a large network. DNS (Domain Name Service) and WINS (Windows Internet Name Service) both provide name resolution services and have nothing to do with the automatic assignment of configuration information. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used to send diagnostic and monitoring information across the network.

213. The error code "HTTP 404" means that:

1.    The user has been denied access to the requested Web page.
2.    The user has requested a Web page that cannot be found.
3.    The user's security certificate has expired.
4.    The user's DNS server is not responding.

answer:

B. A Web server responds with the "404" error when it cannot find the requested file. Notice, however, that Web server is responding. If the DNS server were not responding to resolve the DNS named in the URL to and IP address, the Web server would not be able to respond with any HTTP error code. If a server denies access to a client based on its list of authorized users, the server will respond with either a "401" or "404" error. If a certificate has expired, the server will respond back with an "8181" error.

214. Web servers store cookies:

1.     In the /cgi-bin directory on the Web server
2.    On the client
3.    In the user's home directory on the Web server
4.    In the server's log file.

answer:

B. A cookie is a file, stored on the client system, that enables the server to retrieve information from the client at a later time. Cookies can be used to enhance the usability of a Web site by storing user preferences from one session to the next, but can also raise privacy concerns.

215. Bernie complains that he cannot login to his local newspaper's Web site. Every time he fills in his login information and clicks the "submit" button, he is returned to the login form with all of its fields now cleared. Which of the following steps is most likely to resolve Bernie's problem and enable him to login?

1.     Disable cookies in his browser.
2.    Enable cookies in his browser.
3.    Clear his browser history.
4.    Connect using SMTP instead of HTTP.

answer:

B. While many users disable cookies in their browser to prevent Web servers from collecting information about them as they surf the Internet, many sites use cookies to store information, such as login information, that must be made available to the server in order to use the site.

216. Web browsers such as Internet Explorer and Netscape Navigator act as the ______________ when downloading and displaying Web sites.

1.     Node
2.    Server
3.    Client
4.    Agent

answer:

C. Communications in a TCP/IP environment follow a client/server model, where the client requests services from a server. When browsing the Internet, the Web browser acts as a client, and (not surprisingly) the Web server acts as the server.

217. E-mail clients such as Eudora or Outlook Express send e-mail using ________________, but retrieve e-mail using either _____________ or ________________.

1.     POP3, FTP, SMTP
2.     SMTP, POP3, IMAP
3.    IMAP, POP3, SMTP
4.    POP3, IMAP SMTP

answer:

B. E-mail clients, sometimes known as Message User Agents (MUAs), send e-mail using Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP), and retrieve e-mail using either Post Office Protocol v.3 or Internet Message Access Protocol.

218. In order to connect to a Web server using a URL such as htttp:/www.comptia.org/inet-plus.html, an Internet client must be able to contact a

1.     WINS server to determine the IP address that corresponds to the name www.comptia.org/inet-plus.html.
2.     WINS server to determine the IP address that corresponds to the name www.comptia.org.
3.    DNS server to determine the IP address that corresponds to the name www.comptia.org/inet-plus.html.
4.    DNS server to determine the IP address that corresponds to the name www.comptia.org.

answer:

D. Programs that use Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs) such as www.comptia.org rely on DNS servers to resolve these names to their corresponding IP addresses. DNS servers do not have anything to do with the names of the files on the server, such as the inet-plus.html file used in the example.

219. Which of the following commands will initiate a download using FTP from the command line?

1.     GET
2.    PUT
3.    DOWN
4.    LOAD

answer:

A. To initiate a download using FTP from the command line, use the GET command. Remember the actions of the GET and PUT FTP commands for the exam.

220. Which of the following commands will initiate an upload using FTP from the command line?

1.     GET
2.    PUT
3.    UPLOAD
4.    LOAD

answer:

B. To upload a file using FTP from the command line, you would use the PUT command. Remember the actions of the GET and PUT FTP commands for the exam.

221. To log in and issue console commands to a remote server, you should use which of the following protocols?

1.     HTTP
2.    SMTP
3.    Telnet
4.    SNMP

answer:

C. The Telnet protocol is a standard protocol for remotely issuing console commands (i.e. commands that would normally be typed directly at the server console). SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending e-mail messages, HTTP is used for transferring Web pages from a server to a client, and SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used to monitor network devices.

222. Using a Windows 95 client, which of the following must be correctly configured on the client to map drive letter G: to the shared network resource \\acctserver\currentdata if the server lies on a remote network?

1.     DNS server IP address
2.    DNS server name
3.    WINS server IP address
4.    WINS server name.

answer:

C. WINS (Windows Internet Naming Service) provides NetBIOS name resolution, meaning that client systems can contact the WINS server to determine the IP address that corresponds to a NetBIOS name such as \\acctserver. DNS servers provide a similar function, but on behalf of clients that need to resolve Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs) to IP addresses. For both WINS and DNS, the client must be configured with the IP address of the server, not its name. If the server were on the local network, the client could potentially resolve the IP address via broadcast.

223. Using a Windows 95 client, which of the following must be correctly configured on the client to connect to a remote machine named mail.mydomain.com and download mail using an e-mail client such as Eudora or Outlook Express?

1.     DNS server IP address
2.    A DNS server name
3.    A WINS server IP address
4.    A WINS server name

answer:

A. DNS (Domain Name Service) servers provide name resolution services for clients that need to resolve a Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) to an IP address. WINS (Windows Internet Naming Service) provides NetBIOS name resolution, meaning that client systems can contact the WINS server to determine the IP address that corresponds to a NetBIOS name such as \\acctserver. For both WINS and DNS, the client must be configured with the IP address of the server, not its name.

224. In order to determine on which network a machine with the IP address 10.10.13.12 lies, you must also know which of the following?

1.     Its default gateway
2.    Its subnet mask
3.    Its WINS node type
4.    Its operating system

answer:

B. The combination of an IP address and a subnet mask determines the host ID and network ID of a TCP/IP host.

225. The default gateway setting on an Internet client refers to the:

1.     DNS server provided by the client's ISP.
2.    Mail server that provides default e-mail delivery on behalf of the client.
3.    Router through which the client accesses the Internet.
4.    Web server provided by the client's ISP.

answer:

C. The default gateway setting specifies the router to which IP packets will be sent. The router then forwards the packets to the appropriate system on the Internet.

226. A client using DHCP will keep its current IP address:

1.     Indefinitely
2.     For 60 days
3.     Until its lease expires.
4.    Until challenged by another DHCP client.

answer:

C. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) clients keep the configuration information supplied to them by a DHCP server, including their IP address, until their lease expires. The lease duration can be configured on the DHCP server. By default, Windows NT DHCP servers set a lease duration of three days.

227. In order for a TCP/IP host to have an accurate DNS entry, it should:

1.     Have a static IP address.
2.     Be configured to send DNS client updates to a DNS server.
3.     Have its IP address assigned by a DHCP server.
4.     Have its IP address assigned by a BOOTP server.

answer:

A. DNS (Domain Name Service) uses a static, manually maintained database. Hosts referred to by the DNS server should have static IP address in order to minimize the amount of maintenance required to keep the DNS database up to date. DHCP and BOOTP (an older alternative to DHCP) assign IP addresses dynamically, which can cause the IP address of a particular system to change from time to time. There is no provision in the current DNS specification for automatically making updates to the DNS database.

228. What determines the viewer a client will use to display a downloaded file?

1.     Content Headers
2.     Viewer Headers
3.     MIME Headers
4.     Plug-in Headers

answer:

C. MIME "ain't just for e-mail" anymore. Multi-purpose Internet Mail Extensions (MIME) headers can be used by a wide variety of applications to determine how best to display the content of a file.

229. A cookie is:

1.     A Java applet that sends user information to a Web server.
2.     A small file stored on the client system that can be accessed and read from a Web server.
3.     A small file stored on the server system that can be accessed and read from the Web client.
4.     A small Perl script that runs on the server system.

answer:

B. Cookies are small files stored on the Web client's system that can be accessed by the Web server. Cookies are useful for tracking user activity within a Web site, providing Web developers with a useful tool for customizing the Web-browsing experience for the user. Because cookies raise some privacy concerns, a significant minority of Web users disable support for this feature. If you create a site that relies on cookies, be aware that some users will (by choice) be unable to take advantage of features that rely on cookies.

230. Fran can use which of the following tools to track how individual users browse her Web site, enabling her to customize the site so that each user receives a customized Web page each time they return to the Web site without requiring the user to log in again?

1.     Java
2.    CGI
3.    Cookies
4.    Cache

answer:

C. Although Java applets and CGI scripts can make use of cookies, it is the cookies themselves that allow a Web site to "remember" a user from a previous visit. A cookie is a small file stored on the Web client that can be accessed by the Web server.

231. One advantage of disabling cookies on a Web browser is that doing so:

1.     Allows a Web site to remember a user's preferences each time they visit the site without requiring the user to log in.
2.     Prevents a Web site from storing information on the client system that can be used to track the user, protecting the privacy of the user.
3.     Prevents malicious Java script code from executing, which protects the Web browser client system.
4.     Prevents the Web browser from downloading viruses off the Internet.

answer:

B. Cookies are small text files placed on the client system by a Web server to track the Web client's use of the site. While many sites use cookies for legitimate purposes, users who wish to protect their privacy often disable cookies to prevent Web sites from collecting information about them using cookies. Users should not, however, have a false sense of security just because they have disabled cookies in their browsers -- there are other methods of collecting data about users that do not rely on cookies.

232. Fred has disabled cookies in the preferences for his Web browser, but discovers that several of his favorite Internet sites will not let him access their content without placing cookies on his computer. What can Fred do to enable access to these sites while still preventing most Web sites from placing cookies on his system?

1.     Enable server side includes on his Web browser.
2.     Use TFTP instead of HTTP to connect to sites that require cookies.
3.     Configure his browser to prompt him when a server attempts to send a cookie to his computer.
4.     Enable Secure Cookies in his Web browser.

answer:

C. Most Web browsers can be configured to prompt the user whether to accept cookies on a case by case basis.

233. Malicious code that creates new copies of itself, spreading itself from one computer to the next, is called a:

1.     Germ
2.    Cookie
3.    Virus
4.    Caterpillar

answer:

C. Viruses are self-replicating pieces of code that can spread from one computer to another. The easy exchange of software via Web sites and e-mail attachments allows viruses to spread rapidly. While some viruses are intentionally destructive, others cause problems inadvertently by consuming system resources.

234. An attempt to interfere with the operation of a Web site by flooding it with traffic so that it cannot deal with legitimate connect attempts is called a _________ attack.

1.     Cookie
2.    DoS
3.    Blocking
4.    Spam

answer:

B. A Denial of Service (DoS) attack attempts to prevent legitimate users from connecting to a site by flooding the site with unwanted traffic.

235. A SYN flood is an example of:

1.    A hardware error that can be detected with the NETSTAT utility.
2.     A denial of service (DoS) attack.
3.    Malicious code known as a virus.
4.    A TCP/IP service level guarantee.

answer:

B. A SYN flood, in which numerous connection requests are sent to a server from a system that does not reply to the server when it responds, can cause some systems that have not been properly patched to fill up all of its network buffers. This flood prevents the server from replying to connection requests from legitimate clients.

236. An incremental update to a software package or application that is designed to fix a known problem or add a specific capability is known as a:

1.     Patch
2.    Cookie
3.    Applet
4.    Servlet

answer:

A. A small incremental update to a software package is called a patch. Patches are usually provided for free by the software vendor. One of the most critical parts of an Internet network administrator's job is to keep current on the patches of major pieces of software such as Web servers, TCP/IP stacks, client utilities, and server operating systems. Most hackers exploit known security problems in systems that have not been properly patched.

237. A device that examines the source and destination IP addresses of incoming packets and then accepts or rejects them based on that information is called a _________________:

1.     Packet sniffer
2.    Packet filter
3.    Packet investigator
4.    Packet Sherlock

answer:

B. A packet filter, which is a type of firewall, examines the source and destination IP addresses found in each incoming packet's header information and uses that information to decide whether or not to accept the incoming packet.

238. A device that operates in "promiscuous mode," capturing all network packets on a specific segment for later analysis, is called a:

1.     Packet sniffer
2.    Packet filter
3.    Packet investigator
4.    Packet Sherlock

answer:

A. A packet sniffer is a device that captures all network traffic on a particular segment, regardless of its IP header information, for later analysis.

239. Pierre sends an animated Christmas card, hohoho.exe, to a few of his close friends as an e-mail attachment. Several of his friends compliment his innovation, but Marcella, who uses Internet Explorer on her Macintosh, wants to view the card and complains that she cannot. Which of the following is the most likely reason that Marcella is having difficulty viewing the file?

1.     Internet Explorer cannot open .exe graphics files.
2.    Macintosh computers cannot run DOS/Windows executables without special software.
3.    The MIME standard does not support sending .exe files as e-mail attachments.
4.    Macintosh computers cannot use Internet Explorer.

answer:

B. Without special software such as Virtual PC, Macintosh computers cannot run DOS/Windows executables. These executable files can be identified by their .exe file extension. .

240. Maurice complains that his company's new corporate Web site displays strangely on his Macintosh computer at home, but looks fine on his PC at the office. Mary, the Web designer, double checks the HTML code for the frames, tables, graphics, fonts, and text for each page within the site and finds no problems with the code itself or with the site when viewed from her home computer, which is a Macintosh. Which of the following might explain why Maurice's home computer can't display the pages properly?

1.     Macintosh computers cannot be used for Internet browsing.
2.    Maurice's home computer is using an older Web browser that doesn't support frames.
3.    The Web site uses JPEG graphics instead of GIFs.
4.    Macintosh computers can only open pages that use the Courier font.

answer:

B. If Maurice is using an older Web browser on his PC that doesn't support newer HTML features such as frames, some Web sites will not display properly. Savvy Web designers often put warnings in their HTML code when using frames to warn people viewing their sites using an out of date browser that the pages may not display properly, or provide a "no frames" version of the site. When designing Web sites for use by the general public, Web designers should take into account that their site may display differently when viewed by different browsers.

241. When Fred connects to the URL for his company's Web site from his computer, his browser displays an ad for Web hosting services offered by a different company. Using the exact same URL on Mary's computer, he sees his own company's Web site. Which of the following might explain why entering the same URL displays a different Web site when viewed from Fred's computer than it does when viewed from Mary's computer?

1.     Fred and Mary's computers are set up to use different WINS servers.
2.     Fred is using Windows 95 as his operating systems, and Mary is using Windows NT Workstation.
3.     Fred's browser does not support the HTTP 1.1 standard, and Mary's browser does.
4.     Fred and Mary's computers do not use the same subnet mask.

answer:

C. The HTTP 1.1 standard introduced a number of new features, including HTTP host headers. When a browser that supports HTTP 1.1 sends a request to a Web server, it includes as part of the header information the DNS name used in the URL. When the Web server receives these requests, it can use this information to send back the appropriate Web pages even if multiple Web sites are hosted using the same IP address. Older Web browsers do not include this information, causing the Web server to send back the default Web page defined on the server. WINS name resolution is only used for NetBIOS name resolution and is not used to resolve DNS names such as the ones used in URLs.

242. To ensure that every recipient can view the contents of an e-mail message regardless of which mail client or operating system is used by the recipient, send the e-mail message as:

1.     HTML
2.     Plain text
3.    Rich text format
4.    Unicode

answer:

B. All e-mail clients support plain text, but only a few more full-featured clients support advanced options such as HTML, RTF (Rich Text Format), or Unicode (a 16-bit alternative to 8-bit ASCII). To ensure that every recipient can read a message without worrying about which e-mail client they use, send the message as plain text.

243. In order to view Web sites that are hosted on a server that uses virtual hosting using port 80 and a single IP address for multiple sites, the _______________ must support host headers.

1.     Operating system
2.    DNS server
3.    Web browser
4.    Java virtual machine

answer:

C. The HTTP 1.1 standard introduced a number of new features, including HTTP host headers. When a browser that supports HTTP 1.1 sends a request to a Web server, it includes as part of the header information the DNS name used in the URL. When the Web server receives these requests, it can use this information to send back the appropriate Web pages even if multiple Web sites are hosted using the same IP address. Older Web browsers do not include this information, causing the Web server to send back the default Web page defined on the server. Only the Web browser needs to support HTTP host headers.

244. Cookies can do which of the following? (Choose all that apply.)

1.     Access data directly from any directory on the client system's hard drive.
2.     Report the e-mail address of the user connecting to the Web server using a browser.
3.     Track the pages visited within a Web site by the user.
4.     Remember information entered into a form.

answer:

C and D. Cookies are small files placed on the hard drive of a user's system when they visit a Web site. These cookies can only contain information that the user provides to the Web site (e.g. data entered into a form) or that the Web browser can determine on its own (e.g. the IP address currently being used by the user).

245. Protocols such as HTTP, Telnet, and SMTP operate at the ____________ layer in the OSI 7 model, which provides an interface for applications that want to access the network.

1.     Network
2.     Transport
3.     Presentation
4.     Application

answer:

D. Protocols such as HTTP, Telnet, and SMTP operate at the Application layer, providing an interface for programs that use these protocols (such as Internet Explorer, Netscape Navigator, Eudora, the Telnet application provided with Windows, and more) to access the network.

246. Routing occurs at the _______________ layer in the OSI model.

1.     Physical
2.    Data Link
3.    Network
4.    Transport

answer:

C. Routing occurs at the Network layer in the OSI model, which is sometimes simply referred to as "layer 3." Network devices are often referred to by their relationship to the OSI model. For example, a router is sometimes referred to as a "layer 3 switch."

247. IP addresses, which are used to route data packets to their final destinations, are referred to as _______________ layer addresses in terms of the OSI model.

1.     Physical
2.    Data Link
3.    Network
4.    Transport

answer:

C. Routing in the OSI 7 layer model occurs at layer 3, the Network layer. IP addresses, used in making routing decisions, are therefore sometimes referred to as network layer addresses to distinguish them from other types of addresses, such as MAC addresses, which might be used in the same network. MAC address are considered Data Link (or layer 2) addresses.

248. The layers of the OSI networking model are:

1.     Physical, IP, TCP, Data, Web, Mail, and News
2.    Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application
3.    Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application, and Resource
4.    Address, Service, Connection, and Session

answer:

B. The OSI model, sometimes referred to as the OSI 7 layer model, provides a framework for discussing how the various components of a network relate to each other.

249. Billy connects to his ISP but cannot connect to any servers on the Internet. Checking his network settings, he determines that he is using the following settings:
IP address: 172.16.45.17
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway: 127.16.35.254
DNS Servers: 192.168.123.12, 192.168.123.13
WINS Servers: none
Which of the following is the most likely reason that he cannot connect to any Internet Web sites?

1.     He has not specified a WINS server.
2.    His default gateway lies on a different subnet.
3.    His DNS servers lie on a different subnet.
4.    He has specified more than one DNS server.

answer:

B. The default gateway should always be part of the same subnet as the system using it. In this case, Billy's machine is part of network 172.16.45.0 (determined by looking at both his IP address and subnet mask), while the specified default gateway lies on network 127.0.0.0 (determined by assuming the default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0 for a Class A address). Because Billy's machine would have to go through its gateway to reach network 127.0.0.0, the gateway cannot be on that network. In all likelihood, the default gateway entered here was a simple typo.

250. Joe configures his new Windows NT Workstation computer to connect to his Internet Service Provider using a SLIP connection. After installing Netscape Navigator as his browser, he attempts to connect to his new ISP for the first time. His computer dials the phone number of the ISP, but fails to configure itself using DHCP. Joe contacts the ISP's tech support department and confirms that they assign their IP addresses using DHCP. Which of the following is the most likely reason that Joe cannot obtain an IP address via DHCP?

1.     Windows NT Workstation computers cannot use DHCP and must be configured with a static IP address.
2.    DHCP cannot be used over dialup connections.
3.    SLIP cannot use DHCP and requires a static IP address.
4.    Netscape Navigator cannot use DHCP and requires a static IP address.

answer:

C. SLIP connections must have a static IP address. To use DHCP over a serial connection, use PPP instead.

251. Users of older browsers, such as Internet Explorer 2.0, should consider upgrading to more recent versions because older browsers: (Choose all that apply.)

1.     Have trouble accessing virtual hosted Web sites.
2.    Must use SLIP connections instead of PPP when accessing the Internet over a serial connection.
3.    Require more extensive modification via plug-ins to view the wide range of Web content available, and may not have plug-ins available for all newer types of Web content.
4.    Can't view Web pages that take advantage of advanced HTML features such as frames.

answer:

A, C, and D. Older browsers may not be able to access all Web sites or all content, and since most major browser packages are free, it is usually worth recommending upgrading to those using outdated browser software.

252. Which of the following settings can be set via DHCP? (Choose all that apply.)

1.     Web Proxy
2.    DNS servers
3.    WINS server
4.    Default Gateway

answer:

B, C, and D. DHCP can set settings related to the TCP/IP stack, including IP address, gateways, DNS servers, WINS servers, and so on.

253. A DLL is:

1.     A piece of shared code that can be used by more than one application.
2.     A lossless graphics file format.
3.    A lossy graphics file format.
4.     A configuration file that stores IP configuration information.

answer:

A. Dynamic Link Libraries (DLLs) contain programming object libraries that can be used by more than one application to accomplish commonly performed tasks.

i-Net Security

254. An ACL is:

1.     A lossy graphic format used in Linux graphics applications.
2.    A lossless graphic format used in Macintosh applications.
3.    An access control list used to determine which users have rights to a specific resource.
4.    An archived cartridge library used for backing up server directories.

answer:

C. Access Control Lists are a common feature of server operating systems that can be used to determine which users are allowed to access which resources. A Web page is an example of a resource to which access can be controlled by an ACL.

255. Gary develops his Web site, uploads it to his Linux based Web server, and tests it from his office computer. The site works great -- all the links are valid, all of the graphics load quickly, etc. He puts the site into production and immediately begins receiving complaints from his users that while they can see the site's text just fine, none of the graphics load when they browse the Web site from their own computers. Which of the following is a likely explanation of why Gary can load the site properly on his computer but his users cannot view the site's graphics on theirs?

1.     His users are on the wrong side of the corporate firewall and cannot reach the Web server.
2.    His users cannot connect to the correct DNS server with which to resolve the FQDN of the server.
3.    The corporation's clients are using Microsoft clients to connect to the site, and Microsoft operating systems cannot connect to Linux servers via HTTP.
4.    He uploaded his graphics files to a different directory with different permissions than his HTML documents.

answer:

D. Gary uploaded his graphics files but did not confirm that the permissions for those files on the Web server would allow them to be downloaded by his clients. Server-based operating systems such as Windows NT and Linux provide security features such as file permissions that must be taken into account when deploying a Web site.

256. George discovers that while he can download e-mail using his laptop both at the office and at home, he can only send e-mail from his laptop when he is plugged into his office network. When he is dialed in to his ISP using PPP, his e-mail client software reports an error whenever he tries to send mail. Which of the following is the most likely case of George's problem?

1.     The SMTP protocol cannot be used over PPP connections.
2.    George is sending e-mail using POP3, which requires the user to log in before sending e-mail.
3.     George's company has restricted the use of SMTP to clients directly connected to their corporate network.
4.    George does not have a valid link to the Internet.

answer:

C. To prevent unsolicited e-mail (known as spam) from being relayed via a company's Web server, many companies place restrictions on which clients can send mail using SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol). One of the common ways to do so is to restrict SMTP traffic to IP addresses connected to the company network. To send e-mail from home, George should set his mail client to use his ISP's mail server as his SMTP server when at home.

257. Unsolicited commercial e-mail is often referred to simply as:

1.     Loss
2.    Catalogs
3.    Spam
4.    Blockage

answer:

C. Spam, more formally known as unsolicited commercial e-mail, is any unwanted and unsolicited e-mail message sent to a user, usually for commercial purposes. Spam is more than simply an annoyance - it can drain significant amounts of hard disk space and bandwidth from a company's network.

258. Teardrop is an example of a(n):

1.     DoS attack
2.    Spam chain letter
3.    Enterprise class Web server.
4.    Virus.

answer:

A. Teardrop and its derivatives are examples of Denial of Service (DoS) attacks. Teardrop attacks send inconsistent information in a series of IP packets. Servers that are unprepared for this type of attack may crash as they attempt to interpret and act upon this inconsistent information.

259. The process of sending a packet containing erroneous source information to a network host with the intention of tricking that host into flooding its local network with broadcast traffic is known as:

1.     Cracking
2.    Hacking
3.    Spoofing
4.    Spamming

answer:

C. When a server is spoofed, it is tricked into believing that the source of a DoS attack is coming from some poor innocent bystander server. Spoofing is the act of carrying out this subterfuge

260. A device that accesses Internet hosts on behalf of clients on a protected local network is called a:

1.     Proxy
2.    Gateway
3.    WINS server
4.    Passthrough server

answer:

A. A proxy server acts as a go-between for clients on a local network. The local clients never contact the Internet directly -- instead they send requests to the proxy server. The proxy retrieves the requested resources from the Internet and relays them to the client. As far as servers on the Internet are concerned, they deal only with the proxy. The clients remain anonymous and protected behind the proxy. .

261. A ______________ contains a public key that can be used to encrypt messages that can then be deciphered by clients using a private key.

1.     Cookie
2.    Lock
3.    Certificate
4.    Badge

answer:

C. Certificate authorities, known as CAs, issue certificates containing public keys. These certificates enable communication between a client and a server that is encrypted for privacy and whose origin can be verified.

262. _________ is a secure protocol, developed by Netscape Communications and supported by most browsers, that uses both public and private keys to encrypt data.

1.     PGP
2.    SSL
3.    TFTP
4.    IPSEC

answer:

B. Secure Socket Layer (SSL) was developed by Netscape Communications to provide secure communications over the Internet.

263. Which of the following protocols can be used to send secure e-mail messages over the Internet? (choose 2)

1.     SSL/MIME
2.    S/MIME
3.    PPP/MIME
4.    PGP/MIME

answer:

B and D. S/MIME (Secure Multi-purpose Internet Mail Extensions) and PGP/MIME (Pretty Good Privacy Multi-purpose Internet Mail Extensions) are competing standards for sending secure Internet e-mail messages.

264. DES refers to a standard for:

1.     Legally binding electronic signatures
2.     Encryption
3.    Testing compliance with HTTP 1.1
4.    Converting between lossy and lossless graphics formats

answer:

B. DES (Data Encryption Standard) is a popular encryption standard that is powerful enough that the U.S. government restricts its export under its laws concerning the export of munitions.

265. Which of the following provides for the secure transmission of data across the Internet between two trusted networks, in essence forming a single, logical network?

1.     A DES
2.     A VPN
3.     A firewall
4.     A proxy server

answer:

B. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) provides for the secure transmission of data between two networks over the Internet in a fashion that is transparent to the end user. In effect, the two networks become a single logical network.

266. A file automatically generated by a server or application that contains information that can be used to audit recent logins, data input/output, or other actions taken on a server is called a(n) ________ file.

1.     Audit
2.     Log
3.     Alert
4.     Security

answer:

B. A log file contains automatically generated messages that can be used to diagnose and troubleshoot both security and performance problems. Most applications and servers allow an administrator to set the level of detail to be logged. Remember that logging more detailed information can impact the server's or application's performance.

267. Which of the following protocols can be used to establish a VPN between two networks?

1.     PPP
2.    PPTP
3.     POP3
4.    TFTP

answer:

B. Point to Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) is a common protocol used to encrypt traffic passing across the Internet, allowing the creation of a VPN. Not all VPNs use PPTP -- be aware that competing protocols exist, such as IPSEC and proprietary protocols from vendors such as Cisco.

268. The portion of a company's network that is shared with other trusted organizations but not with the Internet as a whole is called:

1.     Internet
2.    Intranet
3.    Extranet
4.    Outernet

answer:

C. An extranet is a portion of an organizations network to which it allows access by other trusted organizations. For example, a manufacturer might allow retail outlets to access its inventory via an extranet, but still keep that information secure from the general public.

269. An organization's internal network that takes advantage of protocols such as HTTP and SMTP but is not directly connected to the Internet can be referred to as a(n):

1.     Internet
2.    Intranet
3.    Extranet
4.    Outernet

answer:

B. An intranet refers to any private network that makes use of Internet technologies such as HTTP, HTML, POP3, SMTP, and so on. For example, a company that uses a Web server to provide access to its policies and procedures manual within its own organization is using an intranet.

270. ______________ are programs that can examine a host to determine which services the host provides to the network, providing valuable information to both hackers trying to break into a system and administrators trying to secure a system.

1.     Virus scanners
2.     Port scanners
3.     Disk scanners
4.     Web crawlers

answer:

B. A port scanner tests each TCP/IP port to determine which ones are "open," meaning that the system will accept incoming connections to that port. For example, a system that has port 25 open accepts incoming SMTP traffic and may be vulnerable to spam relaying.

271. A Web administrator should consider restricting access to port 23 on the Web server because:

1.     Port 23 is used for Telnet, and a malicious user could use Telnet to break into the server.
2.     Port 23 is used for SMTP, and a malicious user could relay spam to other Internet mail servers using the server.
3.     Port 23 is used for SSL, and Secure Socket Layer should only be used on servers that handle financial information.
4.     Port 23 is used by Finger, an obsolete service that provides a backdoor for hackers into some systems.

answer:

A. Telnet, a useful tool for administrators, allows a user to send commands to the server just as if they were sitting at the server's console. Unfortunately, the Telnet protocol was designed to work in a trusted environment and offers little or no security beyond the use of a password that is sent in clear text across the network. When locking down the security on a Web server, consider disabling Telnet and using another, more secure tool, such as SSH (Secure Shell) instead for remote access to the server's console.

272. Which of the following protocols send user names and passwords across the network in clear text? (Choose all that apply.)

1.     Telnet
2.    POP3
3.     FTP
4.     HTTP basic authentication

answer:

A, B, C, and D. Many of the protocols commonly used on the Internet were originally designed to work in a more trusting environment than today's Internet protocols. For example, protocols such as FTP, POP3, Telnet, and HTTP basic authentication all send their passwords in clear text. Unscrupulous users can capture clear text passwords by running a packet sniffer. Avoid using these services in environments where security it critical, or take steps to make them more secure. For example, you might encapsulate these protocols within a secure protocol such as PPTP.

273. A digital certificate contains ________________, allowing anyone to verify its authenticity.

1.     The sender's IP address
2.     The sender's social security number
3.     A CA's digital signature
4.     The sender's DNS authority record

answer:

C. A digital certificate contains the digital signature of a Certificate Authority or CA, which allows anyone to verify the authenticity of the signature. Keep in mind that the CA is not vouching for the honesty of the certificate holder, but is instead merely vouching for their identity.

274. In order to maintain the effectiveness of anti-virus scanning software on client systems, you should:

1.     Update the anti-virus definition files on each client system regularly.
2.    Run the scanner no more than once each day.
3.     Configure the anti-virus software to ignore all files except those with an .exe extension.
4.     Configure the anti-virus software to scan all files except those with an .exe extension.

answer:

A. Anti-virus software relies on a database of known viruses for which the anti-virus scans. If this database, sometimes referred to as a "virus definition" file, is not kept up to date, the anti-virus software may miss some newer viruses. (Some new viruses may be detected on the basis of their similarity to known viruses.) To be safe, the anti-virus software should be configured to run frequently -- most anti-virus software packages can be configured to scan every file that is loaded from local media or downloaded from the Internet. There was a time when only executable files could contain viruses, but the advanced macro languages built into modern office applications now allow viruses to be transmitted via data files such as Microsoft Word document files (which carry the .doc extension).

275. Which of the following types of files should be scanned for viruses when downloaded from the Internet? (Choose all that apply.)

1.     .exe
2.     .doc
3.     .xls
4.     .zip

answer:

A, B, C, and D. Modern viruses can hide in almost any type of file. While traditionally viruses have spread via executable files, modern office applications - such as Microsoft Word, which uses .doc files, and Microsoft Excel, which uses .xls files - have spread via e-mail. In addition, compressed file formats such as .zip can contain infected files.

276. Bob needs to connect to his office network via the Internet using a secure protocol that will encrypt data packets sent between his home computer and his office network. Which of the following protocols should he use?

1.     PPP
2.    SLIP
3.    Telnet
4.    PPTP

answer:

D. PPTP (Point to Point Tunneling Protocol) can be used to encrypt data passing across insecure networks such as the Internet.

277. In order to watch for attempts to guess user passwords, you should configure your servers to track:

1.     Successful logins
2.     Failed logins
3.    User password changes
4.    FTP downloads

answer:

B. Unusually high numbers of failed logins may indicate that someone is attempting to guess the password of one of your users. In order to know what constitutes an "unusually high level" you should establish a baseline by determining how many failed logins your server observes in a given period of time.

278. Which of the following steps can a network administrator take to increase the security of a mail server? (Choose all that apply.)

1.     Require users to use complex passwords.
2.     Require users to log in before sending e-mail via SMTP.
3.     Require users to change their passwords on a regular basis.
4.     Configure the server to lock out POP3 accounts after three unsuccessful login attempts.

answer:

A, C, and D. Complex passwords that contain a mixture of upper and lowercase numbers, letters, and symbols, are more difficult to guess and therefore more secure. Requiring users to change their passwords on a regular basis also makes a server more secure by limiting the amount of damage that can be done with a compromised password. Configuring a mail server to lock accounts after some number of unsuccessful login attempts reduces the chance that a hacker can discover the password through a brute force approach. Unfortunately, SMTP does not provide a login mechanism - it was designed early in the development of the Internet when the Internet was a friendlier, more trusting place. Restrictions on access to SMTP must rely on something other than a user name and password. Common methods involve restricting SMTP access to clients with specific IP addresses or by the e-mail address used in the "FROM:" field in the outgoing mail's header information.

279. POP3 usernames and passwords are sent over the network:

1.     Encrypted using SSL
2.     Encrypted using PGP
3.     Encrypted using DES
4.     In clear text

answer:

D. While SSL, PGP, and DES are all encryption protocols, the POP3 protocol itself does not use encryption -- all user names and passwords are sent over the network in clear text. For this reason, it is often wise to use different passwords for POP3 than are used for logging in to other network services such as NT domains or UNIX servers.

280. FTP usernames and passwords are sent over the network:

1.     Encrypted using SSL
2.     Encrypted using PGP
3.    Encrypted using DES
4.     In clear text

answer:

D. While SSL, PGP, and DES are all encryption protocols, the FTP protocol itself does not use encryption -- all user names and passwords are sent over the network in clear text. For this reason, it is often wise to use different passwords for FTP than are used for logging in to other network services such as NT domains or UNIX servers.